IBPS AFO Mains Previous Year Paper 2024 pdf
IBPS AFO Mains Previous Year Paper 2024 pdf Download
Subject Wise Question In IBPS AFO Mains
- Agronomy 9
- Agrometeorology 1
- Agroforestry 4
- Seed Technology 3
- Soil Science 7
- Agricultural Engineering 2
- Plant Pathology, Entomology & Microbiology 7
- Plant Breeding & Physiology 2
- Animal Husbandry 6
- Horticulture 9
- Fisheries 5
- Agriculture Current Affairs 4
- Agriculture Economics 0
- Agriculture Extension 0
IBPS AFO Question From Agronomy, Agroforestry & Agrometeorology
1.The aroma in rice is due to?
A. 2acetyl1pyrroline
B. 5acetyl1pyrroline
C. 1acetyl2pyrroline
Answer: A. 2acetyl1pyrroline
Explanation: The compound 2acetyl1pyrroline is responsible for the characteristic aroma in fragrant rice varieties like Basmati and Jasmine rice. It imparts a popcornlike or pandanlike scent that is highly valued in these varieties.
2. Which is known as miracle rice variety?
A. IR8 Miracle Rice of the world
B. Jaya Miracle Rice of India
Answer: A. IR8 Miracle Rice of the world
Explanation: IR8, developed by the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in the 1960s, is known as the “miracle rice” due to its high yield and significant impact on increasing food production in Asia. It played a crucial role in the Green Revolution by boosting rice production and helping to alleviate hunger.
3. Rhizobium species used in lentil
A. Rhizobium melliloti
B. Rhizobium leguminosarum
C. Rhizobium phaseoli
D. Rhizobium trifolii
E. Rhizobium
Answer: B. Rhizobium leguminosarum
Explanation: Rhizobium leguminosarum is the species of Rhizobium that forms symbiotic relationships with lentils (Lens culinaris). This bacterium fixes nitrogen from the atmosphere into a form that the plants can use, thus enhancing soil fertility and promoting better plant growth.
4. Which crop is used as a trap crop to control red hairy caterpillar in groundnut?
A. Sesame
B. Maize
C. Cowpea
D. Potato
E. Rice
Answer: C. Cowpea
Explanation: Cowpea is used as a trap crop to manage the red hairy caterpillar (Amsacta albistriga) in groundnut fields. The caterpillars are attracted to cowpea plants, which helps to divert them away from the main groundnut crop, reducing the damage caused by these pests.
5. Which is the 4th essential nutrient element for pulses and oilseed?
A. Calcium
B. Sulphur
C. Nitrogen
D. Phosphorus
E. Iron
Answer: B. Sulphur
Explanation: Sulphur is considered the 4th essential nutrient element for pulses and oilseeds after nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. It is crucial for protein synthesis and enzyme function, and it plays a significant role in the formation of chlorophyll.
6. Lint index is weight of lint from ____ seeds
A. 50
B. 100
C. 400
D. 200
E. 800
Answer: B. 100
Explanation: The lint index is the weight of the lint (fiber) obtained from 100 cotton seeds. This measure is important for evaluating the quality and yield of cotton. The formula for the lint index is: Lint Index = (Seed Index * Ginning %) / (100 Ginning %), where the seed index is the weight of 100 cotton seeds, generally taken from five averagesized bolls.
7. Branches that arise from the basal node of the crown of cereals and grasses are called?
A. Sucker
B. Tiller
C. Branching
D. Auxiliary bud
Answer: B. Tiller
Explanation: Tillers are the shoots that arise from the basal nodes of the crown of cereals and grasses. They contribute to the overall plant growth and productivity by forming additional stems that can bear grain heads. This is an important feature in crops like wheat, rice, and barley.
8. Exsitu green manure plant is
A. Green gram
B. Dhaincha
C. Rice bean
D. Cowpea
E. Subabul
Answer: E. Subabul
Explanation: Exsitu green manuring involves growing plants elsewhere and then incorporating their green leaves or tender green twigs into the soil. Subabul (Leucaena leucocephala) is commonly used for this purpose. Unlike insitu green manuring, where crops are grown and buried in the same field, exsitu green manuring utilizes plant materials brought from different locations.
9. Unit of specific leaf area
A. Cm
B. Meter
C. Meter Square per kg
D. gm/cm²
Answer: C. Meter Square per kg
Explanation: Specific leaf area (SLA) is defined as the leaf area per unit of dry mass (typically m²/kg). It is a measure used in plant physiology to understand the efficiency of leaves in capturing light and performing photosynthesis. Higher SLA indicates thinner leaves which are usually associated with fastergrowing plants.
10. Ratio of yield of photochemical product to total number of quanta required
A. Phosphorescence
B. Quantum required
C. Quantum quenchement
D. Fluorescence
E. Quantum Yield
Answer: E. Quantum Yield
Explanation: Quantum yield is the ratio of the number of photochemical products formed to the number of photons (quanta) absorbed by the system. It is a measure of the efficiency of the photochemical process.
11. Process of removing the excess soil water using bioenergy of the deeprooted plant.
A. Eco drainage
B. Phyto drainage
C. Vertical drainage
D. Bio drainage
Answer: D. Bio drainage
Explanation: Bio drainage involves using deeprooted plants to remove excess soil water. The plants take up large amounts of water through their roots, which is then transpired through their leaves, thus helping in managing soil moisture levels.
12. Which of the following is known as fertilizer tree?
A. Coconut
B. Gliricidia
C. Banana
D. Mango
Answer: B. Gliricidia
Explanation: Gliricidia (Gliricidia sepium) is known as a fertilizer tree because it can fix atmospheric nitrogen, improving soil fertility. It is often used in agroforestry systems for soil enhancement and as green manure.
13. Ideal character of tree species for alley cropping
A. Releasing allelochemicals
B. Shallow roots
C. N2 fixer
D. Palm species
E. Non legume
Answer: C. N2 fixer
Explanation: For alley cropping, ideal tree species should fix nitrogen (N2 fixers) to enhance soil fertility and support the growth of intercrops. These species improve soil quality by adding organic matter and nutrients.
14. To measure tree height without using any trigonometric formula?
A. Geological altimeter
B. Abney’s level
C. Brandis hypsometer
Answer: B. Abney’s level
Explanation: Abney’s level is a simple instrument used for measuring angles of slope, elevation, or depression of an object with respect to gravity. It can be used to measure tree height without needing complex trigonometric calculations.
15. Which one is an effective postworkout natural recovery drink due to its powerful nutrient package that supplies the nutrients needed after a workout, with carbohydrates to replenish energy, protein to help repair tired muscles, and electrolytes?
A. Greek yogurt
B. Coconut water
C. Whey protein
D. Calatrode
E. Chocolate milk
Answer: B. Coconut water
Explanation: Coconut water is a natural recovery drink that contains a good balance of carbohydrates, proteins, and electrolytes, making it effective for replenishing energy, repairing muscles, and rehydrating the body after a workout.
Agriculture Engineering Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
16. Which of the following is not the main function of lubricating oil?
A. Reduces wear and temperature
B. Maintain working temperature
C. Reduces energy used in friction pressure
D. Act as a seal between piston and cylinder
E. Prevent the parts from rubbing
Answer: D. Act as a seal between piston and cylinder
Explanation: While lubricating oil does reduce wear and temperature, maintain working temperature, reduce energy used in friction pressure, and prevent parts from rubbing, its primary function is not to act as a seal between the piston and cylinder. That function is more specific to piston rings.
17. According to CRIDA, what is the depth for deep ploughing?
A. 2530 cm
B. 56 cm
C. 1520 cm
D. 1015 cm
Answer: A. 2530 cm
Explanation: The depth categories for ploughing are defined as follows:
56 cm: Shallow ploughing
1520 cm: Medium deep ploughing
2530 cm: Deep ploughing
Deep ploughing at 2530 cm helps in breaking up compacted soil layers, improving root penetration and water infiltration.
Seed Technology Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
18. Minimum isolation distance of pearl millet hybrid for certified seeds
A. 200
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 400
Answer: A. 200
Explanation: The minimum isolation distance for pearl millet hybrid seed production to maintain varietal purity for certified seeds is 200 meters. This distance helps prevent crosspollination with other varieties or hybrids, ensuring the genetic integrity of the seeds.
19. In which of the following plants does epigeal germination occur?
A. Rice
B. Mango
C. Soybean
D. Maize
E. Wheat
Answer: C. Soybean
Explanation: Epigeal germination is a type of seed germination where the cotyledons are pushed above the soil surface during germination. Soybean (Glycine max) exhibits epigeal germination, where the cotyledons emerge above the ground, followed by the shoot.
20. Which of the following is a photoblastic seed?
A. Lettuce
B. Carrot
C. Rice
D. Gram
E. Cucumber
Answer: A. Lettuce
Explanation: Photoblastic seeds are seeds whose germination is influenced by light. Lettuce seeds exhibit positive photoblastic behavior, meaning they require light for germination. When exposed to light, photoblastic seeds germinate, whereas they remain dormant in darkness.
Plant breeding & Genetics & Plant Physiology Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
21. Changing the amino acid sequence of a protein without altering the activities of the protein
A. Nonsense mutation
B. Silent mutation
C. Neutral mutation
D. Frameshift transcript mutation
E. Reverse mutation
Answer: B. Silent mutation
Explanation: Silent mutations are those genetic mutations that occur in the DNA sequence but do not result in any change in the amino acid sequence of the protein. This is because the altered codon still codes for the same amino acid due to the redundancy of the genetic code.
22. Mitochondria and chloroplasts carry out oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation reactions by means of?
A. Energy from electrochemical gradient
B. Chemosmotic coupling
C. High energy integrated coupling
D. Sliding filaments
E. Conformational coupling
Answer: A. Energy from electrochemical gradient
Explanation: Both mitochondria and chloroplasts utilize the energy from an electrochemical gradient across their membranes to drive ATP synthesis. This process is known as chemiosmotic coupling, where the energy stored in the proton gradient is used to generate ATP.
Pathology, Microbiology & Entomology Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
23. Which Downy mildew species have obtuse sporangia and secondary and tertiary branches are at right angles?
A. Pseudopernospora
B. Slcerosperma
C. Bermia
D. Plasmopara
E. Sporagiospora
Answer: D. Plasmopara
Explanation: Plasmopara species of Downy mildew typically have obtuse (blunt) sporangia, and their secondary and tertiary branches form at right angles. These characteristics help in identifying the genus Plasmopara.
24. Ooze test is used to detect the pathogen?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Virus
Answer: A. Bacteria
Explanation: The ooze test is used to detect bacterial pathogens. In this test, bacterial cells are suspended in water, and pressure is applied to the sample. If the bacterial cells are ruptured, they release an oozelike substance, indicating a positive result for the presence of bacteria.
25. Paecilomyces lilacinus is applied for?
A. Termite
B. Downy mildew
C. Powdery mildew
D. Rust
E. Root knot nematode
Answer: E. Root knot nematode
Explanation: Paecilomyces lilacinus is a fungus used as a biocontrol agent against root knot nematodes (Meloidogyne spp.). It infects and parasitizes the eggs and juveniles of nematodes, thereby reducing their population in the soil.
26. Damping off in tomato occurs due to?
A. Fungi
B. Virus
C. Bacteria
D. Viroid
E. Protozoa
Answer: A. Fungi
Explanation: Damping off in tomato plants is primarily caused by fungal pathogens, such as species of Pythium and Rhizoctonia. These fungi infect the seeds or seedlings, causing them to rot at the soil line and eventually collapse.
27. The National Research Centre for Integrated Pest Management is located in?
A. New Delhi
B. Lucknow
C. Chennai
D. Karnal
E. Dehradun
Answer: A. New Delhi
Explanation: The National Research Centre for Integrated Pest Management (NCIPM) is located in New Delhi, India. It serves as a research institute focused on developing and promoting integrated pest management strategies for sustainable agriculture.
28. The pest population level at which the expected crop damage exceeds the cost of implementing control measures is known as?
A. Economic injury level
B. Economic Threshold Level
C. Damage Boundary
Answer: A. Economic injury level
Explanation: The economic injury level (EIL) is the pest population density at which the expected cost of crop damage equals the cost of implementing control measures. It is the point at which control measures should be applied to prevent economic losses.
29. Time (in min) required to kill a known population of microorganisms at a given lethal time is referred to as?
A. C value
B. D value
C. Z value
D. F value
E. A value
Answer: D. F value
Explanation: In microbiology, the F value (lethality value) represents the time in minutes required to achieve a specified reduction (usually 90%) in the population of microorganisms at a given temperature during a heat treatment process. It is an important parameter in thermal processing and sterilization procedures.
Animal Husbandry & Dairying Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
30. The mating of animals of wider degree of relativity than those selected for close breeding is known as?
A. Out crossing
B. Close Breeding
C. Cross Breeding
D. Criss crossing
E. Line breeding
Answer: E. Line breeding
Explanation: Line breeding is an inbreeding program where an individual is mated to its descendants, promoting uniformity in desired characteristics. It involves maintaining a higher degree of relationship with a particular ancestor while avoiding the risks associated with close breeding.
31. The gestation period of sheep is?
A. 147 ± 3
B. 135 ± 5
C. 280 ± 3
D. 390 ± 2
E. 114 ± 3
Answer: A. 147 ± 3
Explanation: The gestation period of sheep typically ranges around 147 days, with slight variations depending on individual and environmental factors.
32. In animal husbandry, the term “stag” is used for?
A. Castrated male in pig
B. Castrated male in horse
C. Castrated male in sheep
D. Castrated male in cow
E. Castrated male in goat
Answer: A. Castrated male in pig
Explanation: In animal husbandry, a “stag” refers to a castrated male pig. This term is specific to pigs and is used to denote a male pig that has been neutered.
33. Albumin percentage is how much part of a fowl egg?
A. 48
B. 58
C. 43
D. 60
Answer: B. 58
Explanation: Albumin, also known as egg white, constitutes approximately 58% of a fowl egg. It is the clear, viscous liquid surrounding the yolk. It primarily consists of water and proteins, including albumin, globulins, and mucoproteins.
34. How much-covered area is required for a cow (in square feet)?
A. 2030
B. 3545
C. 6075
D. 80100
Answer: A. 2030
Explanation: Typically, a covered area of around 2030 square feet per cow is required for housing. This area allows the cow to have enough space to move comfortably and lie down.
35. Mad Cow disease is caused due to which spreading agent?
A. Virus
B. Prions
C. Protozoa
D. Bacteria
E. Fungi
Answer: B. Prions
Explanation: Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE), commonly known as Mad Cow Disease, is caused by an unusual transmissible agent called a prion. Prions are infectious proteins that can cause neurodegenerative diseases in animals and humans.
36. Kew, Queen, and Mauritius are varieties of which fruit crop?
A. Pineapple
B. Lichi
C. Guava
D. Mango
E. Sapota
Answer: A. Pineapple
Explanation: Kew, Queen, and Mauritius are popular varieties of pineapple. Pineapple is a tropical fruit known for its sweet and tangy taste.
37. Which is not a polyembryonic variety of mango?
A. Olour
B. Chausa
C. Goa
D. Carabao
E. Chanderkaran
Answer: B. Chausa
Explanation: Chausa is not a polyembryonic variety of mango. Polyembryonic mango varieties produce multiple embryos within a single seed. Chausa is a wellknown variety but is not polyembryonic.
38. Planting fruit trees at closer spacing than the recommended one using certain special techniques with the sole objective of obtaining maximum productivity per unit area without sacrificing quality is often referred to as?
A. HDP (Highdensity planting system)
B. Quincunx system
C. Contour system
D. Cluster system
E. Hexagonal system
Answer: A. HDP (Highdensity planting system)
Explanation: Highdensity planting (HDP) involves planting fruit trees closer together than traditional spacing, often using special techniques to manage growth and maximize productivity per unit area.
39. Dog ridge is related to?
A. Salttolerant rootstock of litchi
B. Salttolerant rootstock of grapes
C. Salttolerant rootstocks of mango
D. Salttolerant rootstock of rose
E. Salttolerant rootstock of
Answer: B. Salttolerant rootstock of grapes
Explanation: Dog ridge is a term related to the salttolerant rootstock of grapes. It refers to a ridge or bund constructed to prevent saltwater intrusion into grape vineyards.
40. Removal of small buds to get large size flowers is known as?
A. Pinching
B. Topping
C. Disbudding
D. Desuckering
Answer: C. Disbudding
Explanation: Disbudding is the removal of small buds or shoots from plants to encourage the development of larger flowers or fruits on the remaining buds or shoots.
41. In case of patch budding, a rectangular patch of bark is removed completely from the rootstock and replaced with a patch of bark of the same size containing a bud of the cultivar to be propagated.
A. Patch budding
B. Inverted T Budding
C. Shield T Budding
D. Chip Budding
Answer: A. Patch budding
Explanation: Patch budding involves removing a rectangular patch of bark from the rootstock and replacing it with a patch containing a bud from the desired cultivar.
42. Molybdenum deficiency in broccoli causes?
A. Whiptail
B. Akiochi
C. Khaira
D. White Bud
Answer: A. Whiptail
Explanation: Whiptail is a disorder caused by molybdenum deficiency in broccoli. It results in malformed leaves and reduced growth.
43. The term Marmi, curl, and crush are related to which crop?
A. Tea
B. Coffee
Answer: A. Tea
Explanation: The terms Marmi, curl, and crush are related to the processing of tea leaves. They refer to different stages in the manufacturing process of tea.
44. Which chemical is responsible for the black color of black tea?
A. Tannin
B. Thioflavin
C. Catechins
Answer: B. Thioflavin
Explanation: Thioflavin is the chemical compound responsible for the black color of black tea. It is produced during the oxidation process of tea leaves.
Fisheries Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
45. Chitala chitala is the state fish of which state?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. West Bengal
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Orrisa
E. Bihar
Answer: C. Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: Chitala chitala, commonly known as the Clown Knife Fish, is the state fish of Uttar Pradesh.
46. The agency that is responsible for the export of fishes and culture fisheries?
A. NAFED
B. MPEDA
C. APEDA
Answer: B. MPEDA (Marine Products Export Development Authority)
Explanation: MPEDA is responsible for the export promotion of marine products, including fishes and culture fisheries, from India.
47. Chloride cells are present in which organ of Teleost fishes?
A. Bladder
B. Gill
C. Brain
D. Kidney
Answer: B. Gill
Explanation: Chloride cells, also known as ionocytes, are specialized cells found in the gills of teleost fishes. They play a crucial role in osmoregulation and ion transport.
48. Which gardening technique involves rearing fish and plants simultaneously, where plants provide feed to fish and fish provide nutrients to plants?
A. Composite fish farming
B. Integrated fish farming
C. Aquaponics fish farming
Answer: C. Aquaponics fish farming
Explanation: Aquaponics fish farming is a gardening technique that combines aquaculture (fish farming) with hydroponics (growing plants in water). In this system, fish waste provides nutrients to the plants, and the plants help to purify the water for the fish.
49. NBFGR (National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources) is located at?
A. Lucknow
B. New Delhi
C. Hyderabad
D. Chennai
E. Karnal
Answer: A. Lucknow
Explanation: NBFGR, the National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources, is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India. It is responsible for the conservation and sustainable utilization of fish genetic resources in the country.
Agriculture Current Affairs Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
50. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF). Under the scheme, farmers will get a minimum pension.?
A. 6000
B. 5000
C. 2000
D. 3000
E. 4000
Answer: D. 3000
Explanation: Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana, small and marginal farmers will receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after reaching the age of 60.
51. Under Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyaan (PMKUSUM), what percentage of subsidy is given to the farmer?
A. 70
B. 60
C. 40
D. 30
E. 50
Answer: B. 60
Explanation: Under the PMKUSUM scheme, farmers can avail of a subsidy of up to 60% for installing solar pumps and other renewable energybased systems for agricultural purposes. An additional 30% of the cost will be provided as a loan, so the farmer has to bear only 10% of the cost.
52. Which of the following is not covered by Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna?\
A. Calamities leading to loss of yield like floods, dry spells
B. Pest infestation yield loss
C. Local natural calamities i.e., earthquakes and landslides
D. Losses covered after harvesting crops due to cyclones and cyclone rains
E. Loss due to war and acts of enmity
Answer: E. Loss due to war and acts of enmity
Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) aims to provide insurance coverage and financial support to farmers in the event of crop failure due to various reasons like natural calamities, pest attacks, etc. However, losses due to war and acts of enmity are not covered under this scheme.
53. The new scheme under PM Kisan Sampada Scheme aimed to cover the creation of infrastructure facilities along the entire supply chain, including precooling, weighing, sorting, grading, waxing facilities at the farm level, multiproduct/multitemperature cold storage, CA storage, and packing facility is?
A. Mega Food Parks
B. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
C. Creation/Expansion of Food Processing/Preservation Capacities (Unit Scheme)
D. Infrastructure for AgroProcessing Clusters
Answer: B. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
Explanation: The Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure scheme under the PM Kisan Sampada Scheme aims to create infrastructure facilities along the entire supply chain to improve the processing and preservation of agricultural products. This includes facilities such as precooling, sorting, grading, cold storage, and packing facilities at various levels to ensure the quality and safety of agricultural produce.
Soil Science Question For IBPS AFO Mains 2024
54. The smallest set of indicators or properties that are needed to characterize soil quality or soil function is?
A. Soil Health Index (SHI)
B. Threshold dataset
C. Soil Quality Index (SQI)
D. Soil Conditioning Index (SCI)
E. Mechanically Dispersed Clay (MDC)
Answer: B. Threshold dataset
Explanation: The threshold dataset refers to the smallest set of indicators or properties required to characterize soil quality or soil function. It helps in identifying critical points or thresholds beyond which soil quality or function may be compromised.
55. The chemical used as a detector in the Neutron Moisture meter in the estimation of soil moisture is?
- Be and BF3
- B. Am and BF3
- Am and Be
- BF3
- Ra and B
Answer: D. BF3
Explanation: The chemical used as a detector in the Neutron Moisture meter for estimating soil moisture is BF3 (boron trifluoride). Neutron moisture meters work on the principle of neutron moderation, and BF3 is commonly used as the detector material.
56. A reduction or loss in arid, semiarid, and dry subhumid areas of biological or economic productivity and complexity of rainfed cropland, irrigated cropland, range forest, pasture, woodland resulting from land uses or from a process or combination of processes including climatic variation and human activities and habitation patterns called?
a.Land Degradation
b. Land Improvement
C. Land Amelioration
D. Land Revitalization
E. Land Augmentation
Answer: A. Land Degradation
Explanation: Land degradation refers to the reduction or loss in the biological or economic productivity and complexity of land in arid, semiarid, and dry subhumid areas due to various factors such as climatic variations, human activities, and habitation patterns.
57. Inclusion of microorganisms in soil for the augmentation of degradation of pollutants is known as?
a. Enhancing Rhizosphere phytoremediation
B. Biostimulation
C. Bioaugmentation
Answer: C. Bioaugmentation
Explanation: Bioaugmentation refers to the process of introducing or adding microorganisms to soil to enhance the degradation of pollutants. These microorganisms can help break down pollutants into less harmful substances.
58. The pF value for the Hygroscopic coefficient is?
- 4.25
- 4.5
- 1.25
- 2.5
- 2.8
Answer: B. 4.5
Explanation: The pF value for the hygroscopic coefficient is 4.5. The pF value represents the negative logarithm of the soil matric potential, and the hygroscopic coefficient is associated with the soil moisture content at this particular pF value.
59. The property which enables clay/soil to take up water to form a mass that can be deformed into any shape and to maintain the shape even after the deformation pressure is removed is?
a. Permeability
B. Porosity
c. Plasticity
D. Compressibility
Answer: C. Plasticity
Explanation: Plasticity is the property of clay/soil that allows it to take up water and form a mass that can be molded into any shape. It can maintain this shape even after the deformation pressure is removed.
60. What is defined as the origin, classification, and description of soil?
Pedology
B. Edaphology
C. Soil Taxonomy
D. Soil Classification
Answer: A. Pedology
Explanation: Pedology is the branch of soil science that deals with the origin, classification, and description of soils, including their formation, distribution, and characteristics. It focuses on the study of soil in its natural environment.