IBPS AFO Mains previous 10 years paper

IBPS AFO Mains previous year

In this post, you will find the IBPS AFO (Agricultural Field Officer) Mains previous year papers from 2017 to 2023-24, complete with detailed explanations. Each paper is accompanied by thorough explanations of the answers. These explanations will help you understand the reasoning behind each answer, enhancing your problem-solving skills and knowledge of key concepts. By reviewing these papers, you can gain insights into the exam pattern, frequently asked questions, and the level of difficulty. This will aid in better preparation and strategic planning for your exam.

This Post Covers: –
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2023-24
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2022-23
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2021-22
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2020-21
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2019-20
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2018-19
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2017-18

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IBPS SO AFO Mains previous year paper 2023-24

IBPS SO AFO Mains previous year paper 2023-24

1. Which among the following is Photoblastic Seed?
  • Rice
  • Cucumber
  • Gram
  • Lettuce
  • Wheat

Answer: Lettuce

Explanation:

Photoblastic seeds are those that require light to germinate. These seeds will not germinate if they are buried too deeply in the soil or if they are in complete darkness. Let’s look at each of the options provided:

  1. Rice (Oryza sativa)
    • Explanation: Rice seeds are generally not photoblastic. They can germinate in both light and dark conditions as long as other environmental conditions (like temperature and moisture) are met.
  2. Cucumber (Cucumis sativus)
    • Explanation: Cucumber seeds are also not typically photoblastic. They can germinate in the dark as well, provided they have the necessary warmth and moisture.
  3. Gram (Cicer arietinum)
    • Explanation: Gram, or chickpea seeds, are not photoblastic. They can germinate in dark conditions, with appropriate moisture and temperature.
  4. Lettuce (Lactuca sativa)
    • Explanation: Lettuce seeds are positively photoblastic, meaning they require light to germinate. This characteristic is why lettuce seeds are often sown very shallowly or even just pressed into the soil surface without covering.
  5. Wheat (Triticum aestivum)
    • Explanation: Wheat seeds are generally not photoblastic. They can germinate in both light and dark conditions if moisture and temperature are adequate.

Summary

Lettuce is the correct answer because its seeds require light for germination, making it a photoblastic seed. The other seeds listed (Rice, Cucumber, Gram, and Wheat) do not have this requirement and can germinate in the absence of light.

2. Chitala chitala is state fish of __
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Maharashtra
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • Rajasthan
  • None of the above

Answer: Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:

Chitala chitala, commonly known as the Indian Featherback or the Indian Knifefish, is indeed the state fish of Uttar Pradesh. Let’s examine each option provided:

  1. Uttar Pradesh
    • Explanation: Chitala chitala is designated as the state fish of Uttar Pradesh. This species is native to the rivers and freshwater bodies of this region, which supports its natural habitat.
  2. Maharashtra
    • Explanation: Maharashtra’s state fish is the “Deccan Mahseer” (Tor khudree), not Chitala chitala.
  3. Madhya Pradesh
    • Explanation: Madhya Pradesh does not designate Chitala chitala as its state fish. The state fish of Madhya Pradesh is the “Mahseer” (Tor tor).
  4. Rajasthan
    • Explanation: Rajasthan, being a largely arid state, does not have a designated state fish like Chitala chitala. The state fish of Rajasthan is not defined, but it is known for other aquatic life adapted to its specific climate.
  5. None of the above
    • Explanation: This option is incorrect since the correct answer, Uttar Pradesh, is listed.

Summary

Chitala chitala is the state fish of Uttar Pradesh. The other states mentioned (Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan) have different designations or no designation for this specific species.

3. Which of the following nutrient is 4th most imp nutrient for Oilseeds and pulses?
  • Nitrogen
  • Potassium
  • Molybdenum
  • Sulphur
  • Phosphorus

Answer: Sulphur

Explanation:

Sulphur is considered the 4th most important nutrient for oilseeds and pulses. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis of proteins, enzymes, and vitamins. Let’s review the roles of the other nutrients listed:

  1. Nitrogen (N)
    • Explanation: Nitrogen is a primary nutrient essential for the growth and development of plants. It is a major component of amino acids, proteins, and chlorophyll. It is typically the most important nutrient for overall plant health and productivity.
  2. Potassium (K)
    • Explanation: Potassium is a major nutrient that helps in various physiological processes, including water uptake, enzyme activation, and photosynthesis. It is vital for the overall health and yield of plants, often considered the second or third most important nutrient.
  3. Molybdenum (Mo)
    • Explanation: Molybdenum is a micronutrient required in very small amounts. It is essential for the functioning of certain enzymes involved in nitrogen fixation and nitrate reduction. It is important but not considered one of the top four primary or secondary nutrients.
  4. Sulphur (S)
    • Explanation: Sulphur is crucial for oilseeds and pulses as it is a component of certain amino acids (like cysteine and methionine) and vitamins. It is involved in the formation of chlorophyll and helps in the synthesis of oils. Sulphur is often regarded as the 4th most important nutrient after nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
  5. Phosphorus (P)
    • Explanation: Phosphorus is another primary nutrient essential for energy transfer, photosynthesis, and nutrient movement within the plant. It is typically the second or third most important nutrient for plant growth.

Summary

Sulphur is the 4th most important nutrient for oilseeds and pulses, following nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. The other nutrients listed play critical roles, but in the context of oilseeds and pulses, sulphur is especially significant for protein and oil synthesis.

4. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan Yojana launched on March 2019. How much subsidy is given to farmers for installation of solar pump?

  • 50
  • 30
  • 70
  • 40
  • 60

Answer: 60

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Yojana was launched to provide financial support to farmers for the installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants. Under this scheme, farmers receive a subsidy to encourage the use of solar energy for irrigation, reducing their dependence on traditional energy sources.

5. How much monthly pension is fixed under Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana for farmers after attaining the age of 60?

  • 1000
  • 2000
  • 3000
  • 4000
  • 5000

Answer: 3000

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is a pension scheme for farmers in India. It aims to provide a secure future for farmers by ensuring a regular monthly income upon reaching the age of 60.

6. When fishes are reared along with plants, plants filtering water for the fishes and fishes provide organic matter to the plants, it is called as ____
  • Integrated
  • Composite fish farming
  • Aquaponics culture
  • Polyculture
  • None of them

Answer: Aquaponics culture

Explanation:

Aquaponics is a sustainable farming method that combines aquaculture (raising fish) and hydroponics (growing plants in water). In an aquaponic system, fish waste provides organic nutrients for the plants, and the plants, in turn, help filter and clean the water for the fish. This creates a symbiotic environment where both plants and fish can thrive.

Let’s review the other options to understand why they are not correct:

  1. Integrated
    • Explanation: Integrated farming typically refers to combining different agricultural practices, such as crop and livestock farming, to improve overall farm productivity and sustainability. While it includes multiple farming activities, it does not specifically refer to the mutual relationship between fish and plants.
  2. Composite fish farming
    • Explanation: Composite fish farming involves raising different species of fish together in the same pond. The species are chosen to complement each other’s feeding habits and ecological niches, maximizing the use of available resources. This practice focuses on fish rather than integrating plants.
  3. Aquaponics culture
    • Explanation: This is the correct answer. Aquaponics culture specifically refers to the combination of aquaculture and hydroponics, where fish and plants are raised together in a mutually beneficial system.
  4. Polyculture
    • Explanation: Polyculture refers to growing multiple species of plants or animals together in the same space to enhance biodiversity and resource use efficiency. While it includes multiple species, it does not specifically describe the integrated system of fish and plants seen in aquaponics.
  5. None of them
    • Explanation: This option is incorrect since the correct term, aquaponics culture, is listed.

Summary

Aquaponics culture is the practice of raising fish and plants together in a symbiotic system where plants filter the water for the fish, and fish provide organic nutrients for the plants. This method is efficient and sustainable, combining the benefits of aquaculture and hydroponics. The other options (Integrated, Composite fish farming, Polyculture) describe different types of agricultural practices that do not specifically refer to this mutually beneficial relationship.

7. The deterioration or loss of the productive capacity of the soils due to various reasons like human activity is called as ____

Options:

  1. Land degradation
  2. Land Amelioration
  3. Land Augmentation
  4. Land Improvement
  5. All of them

Answer:
Land degradation

Explanation:

  1. Land degradation: The deterioration or loss of the productive capacity of the soils for present and future. This is typically caused by human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, improper agricultural practices, and industrial activities.
  2. Land Amelioration: Refers to the process of improving the physical, chemical, or biological properties of the soil to enhance its productivity. This might include practices like adding organic matter, fertilizers, or soil conditioners.
  3. Land Augmentation: Involves increasing the total area of productive land, often through techniques such as land reclamation from seas, lakes, or conversion of non-arable lands into arable land.
  4. Land Improvement: Encompasses a range of activities aimed at enhancing the quality and productivity of land, which can include drainage, irrigation, and soil conservation practices.
  5. All of them: This option is incorrect as the terms land amelioration, land augmentation, and land improvement are all different from land degradation and involve processes that enhance or reclaim the land rather than its deterioration.

8. According to CRIDA, how much is the depth at which deep ploughing is done?

5 to 10 cm
15-20 cm
25-30 cm
35-40 cm
50-60 cm

Answer: 25-30 cm

Explanation:

Deep tillage or deep ploughing is classified by the Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA), Hyderabad, according to the depth of ploughing. The categories are as follows:

  • 5-10 cm: This range is considered shallow ploughing. It is used primarily for surface-level soil manipulation, breaking crusts, and preparing the top layer for seed sowing.
  • 15-20 cm: This depth is classified as medium deep ploughing. It goes deeper than shallow ploughing and is used for general soil preparation, mixing organic matter, and managing weed growth.
  • 25-30 cm: Deep ploughing falls into this category. According to CRIDA, this depth is effective for breaking up compacted soil layers, improving soil aeration, and enhancing water infiltration and root growth. It is particularly useful in dryland farming to ensure better moisture retention and root penetration.
  • 35-40 cm: This depth exceeds the standard range for deep ploughing. It is usually not practiced regularly as it requires more power and can disrupt soil structure significantly.
  • 50-60 cm: This is considered very deep ploughing or subsoiling. It is used for specific purposes like breaking up hardpans deep within the soil profile but is not typically referred to as standard deep ploughing.

9. What is the name of the downy mildew genus in which secondary and tertiary branches are formed at right angles?

Options:

  1. Plasmopara
  2. Sclerospora
  3. Rhizoctonia
  4. Pythium
  5. None of them

Answer:
Plasmopara

Explanation:

  • Plasmopara: This genus causes downy mildew in plants such as grapes. One distinctive feature of Plasmopara species is that their secondary and tertiary branches are formed at right angles. This characteristic branching pattern helps in the identification of the pathogen.
  • Sclerospora: This genus also includes pathogens causing downy mildew, particularly in grasses and cereals, but it does not exhibit the same branching pattern as Plasmopara.
  • Rhizoctonia: This genus is primarily associated with root rot and damping-off diseases in a wide range of plants. It does not form the characteristic right-angle branching seen in Plasmopara.
  • Pythium: This genus includes pathogens responsible for root rot and damping-off diseases, but it does not cause downy mildew and lacks the right-angle branching characteristic.
  • None of them: This option is incorrect as Plasmopara is the correct genus with the described branching pattern.

10. Tomato damping off is caused due to ____

Options:

  1. Fungus
  2. Virus
  3. Bacteria
  4. Protozoa
  5. Nematode

Answer:
Fungus

Explanation:

  • Fungus: Damping off in tomatoes is caused by several soil-borne fungi and fungus-like organisms. The primary pathogens responsible include Pythium, Phytophthora, Rhizoctonia, and Fusarium. These fungi infect the seeds or seedlings, leading to rotting and collapse of young plants, which is characteristic of damping off.
  • Virus: Viruses are not responsible for damping off. They generally cause other types of diseases, often involving systemic infection and symptom expressions like mosaic patterns, stunted growth, and leaf curl.
  • Bacteria: While bacteria can cause various plant diseases, they are not typically the agents of damping off. Bacterial diseases usually manifest as wilts, blights, or spots on the plant.
  • Protozoa: Protozoa are not known to cause damping off. They are more commonly associated with diseases in animals and humans rather than plants.
  • Nematode: Nematodes are microscopic worms that can cause root damage in plants but are not responsible for damping off. They usually cause root knot, cyst formation, and other root deformities.

11. A type of plant budding in which a small patch of bark bearing a scion bud is fitted into a corresponding opening in the stock.

Options:

  1. Patch budding
  2. Ring Budding
  3. Chip budding
  4. T budding
  5. Shield budding

Answer:
Patch budding

Explanation:

  • Patch budding: This method involves removing a rectangular patch of bark from the rootstock and replacing it with a patch of bark of the same size containing a bud of the desired cultivar. The patch from the scion is fitted into the opening in the stock, and the union is secured to ensure proper healing and growth.
  • Ring Budding: This technique involves removing a ring of bark from the rootstock and replacing it with a ring of bark containing a bud from the scion. It is not as commonly used as patch budding.
  • Chip budding: In chip budding, a small chip of wood with a bud is removed from the scion and inserted into a corresponding cut in the rootstock. It is useful for species where the bark does not separate easily from the wood.
  • T budding: This method involves making a T-shaped cut in the bark of the rootstock and inserting a bud from the scion into the cut. It is commonly used for many fruit trees and roses.
  • Shield budding: Similar to T budding, shield budding involves making a cut in the shape of a shield in the rootstock and inserting a bud from the scion. It is another common method for budding fruit trees and roses.

12. Which of the following is not a polyembryonic variety of mango?

Options:

  1. Olour
  2. Chandrakaran
  3. Malgoa
  4. Chausa
  5. Goa

Answer:
Chausa

Explanation:

  • Olour: This is a polyembryonic variety of mango, meaning it can produce more than one seedling from a single seed.
  • Chandrakaran: Another polyembryonic variety of mango, capable of producing multiple seedlings from a single seed.
  • Malgoa: This variety is also polyembryonic, known for producing multiple seedlings from one seed.
  • Chausa: Chausa is a monoembryonic variety, which means it produces only one seedling from each seed. This characteristic differentiates it from polyembryonic varieties.
  • Goa: This is typically a polyembryonic variety, capable of producing multiple seedlings from a single seed.

13. Which variety of Paddy is known as miracle rice?

Options:

  1. IR 8
  2. Jalmagna
  3. TN1
  4. Ponni
  5. None of them

Answer:
IR 8

Explanation:

  • IR 8: This variety, known as “miracle rice,” is the first high-yielding dwarf variety developed. It is a cross between ‘Dee geo woo gene’ and ‘Peta.’ IR 8 played a significant role in the Green Revolution due to its high yield potential and shorter growth duration, which allowed for multiple cropping cycles in a year.
  • Jalmagna: This variety is not known as miracle rice. It is typically grown in waterlogged conditions but does not have the same international recognition as IR 8.
  • TN1: This is an early maturing variety but is not referred to as miracle rice.
  • Ponni: A popular variety known for its fine grain and aroma, but not called miracle rice.
  • None of them: Incorrect, as IR 8 is indeed the miracle rice.

14. How much is the sheep gestation period?

Options:

  1. 147 ± 3
  2. 155 ± 3
  3. 210 ± 3
  4. 310 ± 3
  5. 273 ± 3

Answer:
147 ± 3

Explanation:
The gestation period in sheep is the duration from conception to birth. For sheep, this period typically lasts about 147 days, with a variation of plus or minus 3 days. This means that the actual gestation period can range from approximately 144 to 150 days. The gestation period is crucial for planning the timing of lambing and ensuring proper care and nutrition for the pregnant ewe.

15. In animal science, the term “Stag” refers to:

Options:

  1. Castrated male of Pig
  2. Castrated male of Horse
  3. Castrated male of Goat
  4. Castrated male of Sheep
  5. Castrated male of Cow

Answer:
Castrated male of Pig

Explanation:
In animal husbandry, specific terms are used for castrated males of different species:

  • Castrated male of Pig: Referred to as a “stag.”
  • Castrated male of Horse: Known as a “gelding.”
  • Castrated male of Goat: Called a “wether.”
  • Castrated male of Sheep: Also termed a “wether.”
  • Castrated male of Cow: Referred to as a “steer.”

The term “stag” is specifically used for castrated male pigs, distinguishing them from other livestock.

16. Ex situ green manuring can be done by ___

Options:

  1. Subabool
  2. Rice bean
  3. Sesbania
  4. Dhaincha
  5. Cowpea

Answer:
Subabool

Explanation:
Ex situ green manuring involves growing green manure crops outside the main field where they will eventually be incorporated into the soil. The green manure crops are cultivated in a separate area, and their biomass is later added to the soil to improve its fertility.

  • Subabool (Leucaena leucocephala): This is a green leaf manure tree that can be grown in areas outside the main cropping field. It is highly effective due to its rapid growth, high biomass production, and ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen, enriching the soil.
  • Rice bean, Sesbania, Dhaincha, and Cowpea: While these are also green manure crops, they are usually grown in situ (within the main field) rather than ex situ.

17. Which Rhizobium strain is used in Lentil?

Options:

  1. Rhizobium meliloti
  2. Rhizobium japonicum
  3. Rhizobium leguminosarum
  4. Rhizobium lupini
  5. None of them

Answer:
Rhizobium leguminosarum

Explanation:
Lentils, which are legumes, form a symbiotic relationship with specific strains of Rhizobium bacteria to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil. The correct strain for lentils is:

  • Rhizobium leguminosarum: This strain is known to specifically form a symbiotic relationship with lentils, facilitating nitrogen fixation and improving soil fertility.

Here’s a brief overview of the other strains listed:

  • Rhizobium meliloti: This strain is primarily associated with alfalfa and other members of the Medicago genus, not lentils.
  • Rhizobium japonicum: This strain is used with soybeans and other members of the Glycine genus, rather than lentils.
  • Rhizobium lupini: This strain is associated with lupins, not lentils.
  • None of them: This option is incorrect since Rhizobium leguminosarum is the correct strain for lentils.

18. Which trap crop is used for red hairy caterpillar in Groundnut?

Options:

  1. Cowpea
  2. Sesamum
  3. Rice
  4. Maize
  5. None of them

Answer:
Cowpea

Explanation:
Cowpea (Vigna unguiculata) is employed as a trap crop to manage red hairy caterpillar infestations in groundnut (peanut) fields. The red hairy caterpillar, scientifically known as Spodoptera mauritia, is a significant pest that damages groundnut crops. By planting cowpea, which attracts the red hairy caterpillar, farmers can monitor and control the pest more effectively. The larvae of the caterpillar are drawn to the cowpea plants, allowing for early detection and management before they can spread to the main crop, thus reducing overall pest damage.

19. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of trees grown in alley cropping?

Options:

  1. Palm Trees
  2. Shallow Roots
  3. Nitrogen Fixation
  4. No-Nitrogen Fixation
  5. All of them

Answer:
Nitrogen Fixation

Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation is a highly desirable trait for trees used in alley cropping systems. In this agricultural practice, trees are planted in rows (alleys) between crops, and those that can fix nitrogen are particularly beneficial. Leguminous trees and shrubs, such as Leucaena leucocephala and Gliricidia sepium, have the ability to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use, thus enriching the soil with nitrogen. This process enhances soil fertility, reduces the need for synthetic fertilizers, and improves the growth and yield of the crops grown in the alleys.

20 . The practice in which the plants are grown to extract water from an area of shallow water table, through the transpiration process is called as ___

Options:

  1. Phyto drainage
  2. Bio Drainage
  3. Vertical Drainage
  4. Mole Drainage
  5. Ditch Drainage

Answer:
Bio Drainage

Explanation:
Bio drainage is the practice of using deep-rooted plants to extract excess soil water, especially from areas with a shallow water table. The process involves the planting of species with extensive root systems that can absorb water from deeper soil layers. This method effectively lowers the groundwater level through the plants’ transpiration, thereby reducing soil waterlogging and improving soil aeration. This technique is particularly useful in areas prone to waterlogging and salinity issues.

21. Mad cow disease is caused by:

Options:

  1. Virus
  2. Prions
  3. Bacteria
  4. Protozoa
  5. Fungus

Answer:
Prions

Explanation:
Mad cow disease (Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy, BSE) is caused by prions, which are misfolded proteins that induce abnormal folding of normal proteins in the brain. Unlike bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa, prions are not living organisms but rather infectious proteins. They lead to progressive neurological degeneration, characterized by spongiform changes in the brain tissue. Prion diseases, including BSE, are known for their long incubation periods and the absence of effective treatments, making them a serious concern in veterinary and human health.

22. How do mitochondria and chloroplasts perform oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation reactions, respectively?

Options:

  1. Integrated coupling
  2. Chemiosmotic coupling
  3. Energy from electrochemical gradient
  4. Sliding filaments
  5. Conformational coupling

Answer:
Energy from electrochemical gradient

Explanation:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts perform oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation, respectively, using the energy from an electrochemical gradient:

  • Mitochondria: In mitochondria, oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane. The process involves the electron transport chain (ETC), where electrons are transferred through a series of complexes, leading to the pumping of protons (H⁺ ions) across the membrane, creating an electrochemical gradient. This gradient drives ATP synthesis through ATP synthase.
  • Chloroplasts: In chloroplasts, photophosphorylation takes place during photosynthesis in the thylakoid membranes. Light energy drives the transfer of electrons through the photosynthetic electron transport chain, leading to the pumping of protons across the thylakoid membrane, establishing an electrochemical gradient that is used by ATP synthase to produce ATP.

In both processes, the generation of ATP relies on the electrochemical gradient of protons across a membrane, which is harnessed to drive ATP synthesis.

23. What is the branch of soil science related to the origin and classification of soil?

Options:

  1. Pedology
  2. Edaphology
  3. Geology
  4. Petrology
  5. Mineralogy

Answer:
Pedology

Explanation:
Pedology is the branch of soil science that deals with the origin, formation, classification, and mapping of soils as natural bodies. It focuses on understanding soils in their natural context, including their development, properties, and relationships with the environment.

  • Edaphology: This branch focuses on the soil’s role in supporting plant growth and its practical use in agriculture.
  • Geology: The study of the Earth’s physical structure and substances.
  • Petrology: The study of rocks, including their origin and formation.
  • Mineralogy: The study of minerals, including their structure, properties, and classification.

24. Kew, Queen, or Mauritius are varieties of:

Options:

  1. Pineapple
  2. Sapota
  3. Banana
  4. Mango
  5. Grapes

Answer:
Pineapple

Explanation:
Kew, Queen, and Mauritius are varieties of pineapple (Ananas comosus). These varieties are distinguished by their flavor, size, and other characteristics:

  • Kew: Known for its large size and sweet taste.
  • Queen: Recognized for its small size and intense flavor.
  • Mauritius: Characterized by its unique flavor and sweetness.

25. An organization which is related to export and post-harvest management, development of fishes and aquaculture products in India is ____

Options:

  1. MPEDA
  2. CFTRI
  3. Fisheries board
  4. CMFRI
  5. All of these

Answer:
MPEDA

Explanation:
MPEDA (Marine Products Export Development Authority) is the statutory body established in 1972 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to promote the export of marine products from India. It plays a crucial role in the development of the fisheries and aquaculture sectors, including post-harvest management, quality control, and export promotion.

  • CFTRI (Central Food Technological Research Institute): Focuses on food technology and processing.
  • Fisheries board: A generic term that may refer to various local or national bodies dealing with fisheries but is not specifically associated with the export and development of marine products.
  • CMFRI (Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute): Engages in research on marine fisheries and aquaculture but is not primarily focused on export and post-harvest management.

26. Lint index is calculated by using how many seeds of cotton?

Options:

  1. 100 Seeds
  2. 400 Seeds
  3. 800 Seeds
  4. 300 Seeds
  5. 500 Seeds

Answer:
100 Seeds

Explanation:
The lint index (LI) is a measure of the weight of cotton lint (fiber) that can be obtained from a specific number of cotton seeds. It is typically calculated using a sample of 100 seeds. The calculation involves:

  1. Ginning a Sample: A sample of cotton is ginned to separate the lint from the seeds.
  2. Weighing the Lint: The weight of the lint obtained from the sample is recorded.
  3. Estimating Lint Index: The weight of the lint is divided by the number of seeds in the sample, and then this value is multiplied by 100 to get the lint index.

27. What is the isolation distance in the case of certified seed production in Pearl Millet?

Options:

  1. 1000 m
  2. 500 m
  3. 300 m
  4. 200 m
  5. 100 m

Answer:
200 m

Explanation:
In certified seed production for Pearl Millet, the isolation distance is 200 meters. This distance is required to prevent cross-pollination and ensure the purity of the seed. For foundation seed production, a greater isolation distance of 1000 meters is required to maintain higher purity standards. Isolation distances are critical in seed production to minimize the risk of contamination from other varieties or species.

28. Which one of the following is PMFBY Exclusion?

Options:

  1. Natural Fire and Lightning
  2. Storm, Hailstorm, Cyclone, Typhoon, Tempest, Hurricane, Tornado, etc.
  3. Flood, Inundation, and Landslide
  4. War and act of enmity
  5. Drought, Dry spells

Answer:
War and act of enmity

Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a crop insurance scheme in India that provides coverage against various risks. However, it excludes coverage for damages caused by war and acts of enmity. This exclusion means that if a farmer suffers losses due to war or conflict, the insurance claim will not be honored under the PMFBY scheme. Other risks, such as natural disasters (fire, storms, floods) and droughts, are generally covered under this scheme.

29. In which of the following is the cost of control of pests equal to the cost of management of pests?

Options:

  1. Economic Injury Level
  2. Economic Threshold Level
  3. General Equilibrium Population
  4. Damage Boundary
  5. None of them

Answer:
Economic Injury Level

Explanation:
The Economic Injury Level (EIL) is defined as the critical point at which the cost of pest damage equals the cost of control measures. At this level, the damage caused by the pest is just equal to the expense incurred for managing it, meaning that it is economically justifiable to take control measures. The EIL helps in making decisions about pest management by providing a threshold at which intervention is necessary to prevent economic loss.

30. National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources is situated at ___

Options:

  1. Lucknow
  2. Cochin
  3. Bhuvneshwar
  4. Thiruvanthpuram
  5. Kozhikode

Answer:
Lucknow

Explanation:
The National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India. The NBFGR is a premier institute dedicated to the conservation and management of fish genetic resources. It focuses on the collection, preservation, and research of fish genetic material, which is crucial for maintaining biodiversity and improving aquaculture practices in India. The bureau plays a key role in ensuring sustainable fisheries and enhancing the genetic quality of fish stocks.

31. National Research Center for Integrated Pest Management is located at ___

Options:

  1. New Delhi
  2. Mumbai
  3. Kolkata
  4. Nagpur
  5. Cochin

Answer:
New Delhi

Explanation:
The National Research Center for Integrated Pest Management (NRCIPM) is situated in New Delhi, India. NRCIPM focuses on research and development related to integrated pest management strategies. Its goal is to develop sustainable pest management practices that reduce reliance on chemical pesticides and enhance crop protection through environmentally friendly methods. The center plays a crucial role in advancing pest management research and implementing integrated pest management (IPM) practices in agriculture.

32. The ability of soil to undergo deformation without cracking is called as ___

Options:

  1. Plasticity of soil
  2. Consistency
  3. Aggregation
  4. Porosity
  5. Texture

Answer:
Plasticity of soil

Explanation:
Plasticity of soil refers to the ability of soil to undergo deformation under moist conditions without cracking. It is an important property for understanding how soil behaves under various conditions. Soils with high plasticity, typically those with more than 15% clay content, can be molded or shaped when wet and retain that shape until they dry. This property is crucial for various engineering applications, including construction and agricultural practices.

33. Chloride cells are present in which part of teleost fishes?

Options:

  1. Kidney
  2. Gills
  3. Bladder
  4. Scales
  5. Oesophagus

Answer:
Gills

Explanation:
Chloride cells are specialized cells located in the gills of teleost fishes, particularly in freshwater species. These cells are involved in the osmoregulatory process, helping the fish maintain ionic balance by excreting excess chloride ions. Chloride cells adapt to changes in salinity, which is crucial for fishes transitioning between freshwater and seawater environments. They play a key role in the fish’s ability to regulate internal salt concentrations and manage water balance.

34. Albumin part comprises of what percentage in a fowl egg by weight?

Options:

  1. 30%
  2. 70%
  3. 60%
  4. 50%
  5. 40%

Answer:
60%

Explanation:
In a typical fowl egg, the composition by weight is approximately:

  • 60% Albumen (egg white): This is the part of the egg that contains proteins such as ovalbumin, which provides nourishment to the developing embryo and contributes to the egg’s structure.
  • 30% Yolk: The yolk contains fats, proteins, and essential nutrients for the developing embryo.
  • 10% Shell: The eggshell provides protection and is made primarily of calcium carbonate.

Thus, the albumin (egg white) makes up about 60% of the total weight of the egg.

35. Floor space required for a cow in a covered space in sq. feet?

Options:

  1. 20-30
  2. 40-45
  3. 60-70
  4. 70-90
  5. 75-85

Answer:
40-45

Explanation:
For a cow housed in a covered space, it is generally recommended to provide 40-45 square feet of floor space per cow. This allows enough room for the cow to move comfortably and helps in maintaining hygiene and reducing stress. Proper space allocation is crucial for the well-being of livestock and contributes to their overall health and productivity.

36. Unit of specific leaf area (SLA) is ___

Options:

  1. m²/kg
  2. cm²
  3. mg⁻¹
  4. cm⁻²
  5. cm² day⁻¹

Answer:
m²/kg

Explanation:
Specific Leaf Area (SLA) is a measure of the leaf area relative to its dry mass. The unit of SLA is commonly expressed as m²/kg or cm²/g. It quantifies how much leaf area is present per unit of leaf dry weight, which can be useful in studying plant growth, photosynthesis, and ecological strategies.

37. Which chemical developed during fermentation of tea imparts black color to tea?

Options:

  1. Tannins
  2. Theaflavin
  3. Catechol
  4. Caffeine
  5. Rubigins

Answer:
Theaflavin

Explanation:
Theaflavins are the compounds responsible for the black color of fermented tea. During the fermentation process of tea leaves, polyphenolic compounds are oxidized to form theaflavins and thearubigins, which contribute to the color and flavor of black tea. Theaflavins specifically are crucial in giving black tea its characteristic hue.

38. Alteration of amino acids in sequence without altering protein function is called as

Options:

  1. Nonsense genetic mutation
  2. Silent genetic mutation
  3. Frameshift mutation
  4. Monosomic
  5. Trisomic

Answer:
Silent genetic mutation

Explanation:
A silent genetic mutation is a change in the DNA sequence that does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein produced. Although the codon sequence may change, the resulting amino acid remains the same due to the redundancy of the genetic code. As a result, the protein’s function is not affected by the mutation.

39. Branches arising from the lowermost nodes especially in cereals are called ____

Options:

  1. Suckers
  2. Stolon
  3. Tillers
  4. Rhizomes
  5. Runners

Answer:
Tillers

Explanation:
Tillers are branches that arise from the lowermost nodes of the main shoot in cereals. They develop from the leaf axils and contribute to the overall growth and productivity of the plant by increasing the number of stems. Tillering is an important aspect of cereal crop growth and helps in maximizing yield.

40. An instrument used to measure the height of a tree, is portable and does not use Pythagoras’ theorem is ____

Options:

  1. Altimeter
  2. Hypsometer
  3. Abney Level
  4. Crescograph
  5. None of them

Answer:
Hypsometer

Explanation:

  1. Altimeter: Measures altitude or height above a fixed level, often using barometric pressure. It’s not specifically designed for measuring tree heights and does not provide direct height measurements.
  2. Hypsometer: Used to measure the height of trees by either using angular measurements or barometric pressure changes. It is portable and does not rely on Pythagorean calculations.
  3. Abney Level: An optical instrument used for measuring angles of elevation or depression, which can be used to determine height by trigonometric calculations, but it often involves Pythagorean theorem principles.
  4. Crescograph: Measures the growth rate of plants, not their height. It records the rate of growth by measuring the elongation of plant parts.
  5. None of them: Incorrect because the correct answer is Hypsometer.

41. Molybdenum deficiency in Broccoli leads to

Options:

  1. Whiptail
  2. White Bud
  3. Tip Burning
  4. Khaira
  5. Black Tip

Answer:
Whiptail

Explanation:

  1. Whiptail: Caused by molybdenum deficiency, characterized by twisted and frayed leaf margins, especially in Brassica crops like broccoli.
  2. White Bud: A condition in cauliflower and other Brassicas usually caused by a deficiency in calcium or boron, not molybdenum.
  3. Tip Burning: Typically related to calcium deficiency, causing the tips of leaves to turn brown and dry.
  4. Khaira: A disorder in rice caused by zinc deficiency, not related to molybdenum.
  5. Black Tip: A condition affecting certain crops, often related to potassium or other deficiencies, but not specifically molybdenum.

42. Which among the following is not the main function of lubricating oil?

Options:

  1. To maintain the temperature of the engine
  2. To reduce the friction
  3. To reduce wear and tear
  4. To take away the heat from the piston
  5. To act as a seal between the piston and cylinder

Answer:
To maintain the temperature of the engine

Explanation:

  1. To maintain the temperature of the engine: Not a primary function. Lubricating oil helps in cooling by transferring heat but does not control or regulate the engine temperature.
  2. To reduce the friction: Lubricating oil forms a film between moving parts, reducing friction and preventing wear.
  3. To reduce wear and tear: The oil reduces wear by minimizing metal-to-metal contact and protecting surfaces from damage.
  4. To take away the heat from the piston: The oil helps in cooling engine components by absorbing and transferring heat away from hot areas like the piston.
  5. To act as a seal between the piston and cylinder: Lubricating oil helps to create a seal, reducing blow-by and maintaining compression.

43. Dog ridge is the rootstock of

Options:

  1. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of grape
  2. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of lemon
  3. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of mango
  4. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of banana
  5. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of sapota

Answer:
Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of grape

Explanation:

  1. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of grape: Dog Ridge is specifically used as a rootstock for grapes due to its resistance to drought and salinity conditions.
  2. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of lemon: This is not correct. Dog Ridge is not used for lemon rootstocks.
  3. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of mango: Dog Ridge is not used as a rootstock for mangoes.
  4. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of banana: Not correct, as Dog Ridge is not used for bananas.
  5. Drought and salinity resistance rootstock of sapota: Dog Ridge is not used as a rootstock for sapota.

44. The new sub-scheme under PM Kisan Sampada Scheme which aims to build infrastructure, including pre-cooling, weighing, sorting, grading, and waxing facilities at the farm level. It also includes multi-product/multi-temperature cold storage, CA storage, and packing facilities across the supply chain is:

Options:

  1. Infrastructure for Agro-Processing Clusters
  2. Mega Food Parks
  3. Creation of Food Preservation Unit
  4. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
  5. Creation of Food Processing Unit Scheme

Answer:
Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure

Explanation:
The Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure sub-scheme under PM Kisan Sampada Scheme focuses on developing infrastructure essential for the food supply chain, including cold storage, pre-cooling, sorting, and packing facilities. This initiative aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the food processing and storage sectors.

  1. Infrastructure for Agro-Processing Clusters: A scheme to create processing infrastructure at clusters, but it does not specifically address cold chain facilities.
  2. Mega Food Parks: Focuses on developing large-scale food processing parks with a range of facilities but is not limited to cold chain infrastructure.
  3. Creation of Food Preservation Unit: Focuses on preservation but does not cover the full scope of cold chain and value addition infrastructure.
  4. Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure: Correct answer; covers cold storage, pre-cooling, sorting, grading, and packing.
  5. Creation of Food Processing Unit Scheme: More general and does not specifically target cold chain and value addition infrastructure.

45. Ratio of yield of photochemical product to total number of quanta used is called as ___

Options:

  1. Quantum required
  2. Quantum quenching
  3. Fluorescence
  4. Quantum Yield
  5. Phosphorescence

Answer:
Quantum Yield

Explanation:
Quantum Yield is a measure of the efficiency of a photochemical reaction. It is the ratio of the number of photons (quanta) that lead to a photochemical product to the total number of photons absorbed. It indicates how effectively absorbed light is converted into chemical energy.

  1. Quantum required: This term is not used in the context of photochemical reactions.
  2. Quantum quenching: Refers to the reduction in fluorescence or luminescence due to various processes, not the yield.
  3. Fluorescence: The emission of light by a substance that has absorbed light; it is not a measure of the yield of a photochemical reaction.
  4. Quantum Yield: Correct answer; it measures the efficiency of a photochemical reaction.
  5. Phosphorescence: Emission of light by a substance that persists after excitation; not related to quantum yield.

46. Removal of small buds to obtain the bigger flowers is called as

Options:

  1. Disbudding
  2. Pinching
  3. Tipping
  4. Clipping
  5. None of them

Answer:
Disbudding

Explanation:
Disbudding is the horticultural practice of removing smaller buds from plants to promote the growth of larger, more desirable flowers. This technique ensures that the plant’s energy is concentrated on fewer blooms, resulting in larger flower size.

  1. Disbudding: Correct answer; involves removing small buds to encourage larger blooms.
  2. Pinching: Refers to the removal of the growing tip of a plant to promote bushier growth rather than larger flowers.
  3. Tipping: Typically involves removing the tips of shoots to encourage branching, not specifically related to flower size.
  4. Clipping: A general term for cutting or trimming plants, not specifically related to flower size.
  5. None of them: Incorrect, as disbudding is the correct term.

47: Aroma in Rice occurs due to which chemical?

Options:

  1. 2 butyl 1 pyrroline
  2. 2 acetyl 1 pyrroline
  3. diacetyl pyrrolidine
  4. diacetyl pyrrolidone
  5. None of them

Answer:
2 acetyl 1 pyrroline

Explanation:
2-Acetyl-1-pyrroline is the chemical compound responsible for the characteristic aroma in aromatic rice varieties, such as Basmati and Jasmine. It is a volatile compound that contributes to the distinct smell of these rice types.

  1. 2 butyl 1 pyrroline: Not associated with rice aroma; it is not a known compound for rice aroma.
  2. 2 acetyl 1 pyrroline: Correct answer; this compound imparts the aromatic fragrance to certain rice varieties.
  3. diacetyl pyrrolidine: Not related to rice aroma.
  4. diacetyl pyrrolidone: Not related to rice aroma.
  5. None of them: Incorrect as 2-acetyl-1-pyrroline is the correct answer.

48. Which of the following is used in neutron moisture meter as a neutron source?

Options:

  1. Am- Be
  2. Am – BF3
  3. Be and BF3
  4. Ra and B
  5. Am and Be

Answer:
Am- Be

Explanation:
In a neutron moisture meter, Americium-beryllium (Am-Be) is commonly used as the neutron source. It provides a source of neutrons that interacts with the soil to measure moisture content. Boron trifluoride (BF3) is used as the neutron detector, not as the source.

  1. Am- Be: Correct answer; Americium-beryllium is used as the neutron source.
  2. Am – BF3: BF3 is a neutron detector, not a source.
  3. Be and BF3: Beryllium is not used alone as a neutron source in this context.
  4. Ra and B: Radium is not used in modern neutron moisture meters.
  5. Am and Be: Incorrect; Am-Be is the correct combination, not Am and Be separately.

49. The mating of animals with a wider degree of relativity than selective for close breeding is called as:

Options:

  1. Line breeding
  2. Out Crossing
  3. Criss crossing
  4. Inbreeding
  5. Close Breeding

Answer:
Line breeding

Explanation:
Line breeding is a form of selective breeding where animals are mated within a specific line or family, but with a wider degree of relatedness than in close breeding. It maintains the desirable traits of a lineage while reducing the risks of too close inbreeding.

  1. Line breeding: Correct answer; it involves breeding animals within a line or family but not as closely as inbreeding.
  2. Out Crossing: Mating animals from different genetic backgrounds to increase genetic diversity, not related to degree of relativity.
  3. Criss crossing: Involves crossing different lines or breeds, not specifically related to degree of relativity.
  4. Inbreeding: Breeding closely related animals to maintain specific traits, not broader relatedness.
  5. Close Breeding: Mating animals that are very closely related, which is not the same as line breeding.

50. After doing a workout, which drink is used for adding protein, minerals, adding hydration, and muscle buildup?

Options:

  1. Chocolate milk shake
  2. Whey Protein
  3. Coconut Water
  4. Yogurt
  5. None of these

Answer:
Whey Protein

Explanation:
Whey Protein is highly effective for post-workout recovery due to its rapid absorption, high protein content, and ability to aid in muscle repair and growth. It also contributes to hydration and provides essential amino acids.

  1. Chocolate milk shake: Contains protein and calories but is less specifically targeted for post-workout recovery compared to whey protein.
  2. Whey Protein: Correct answer; ideal for post-workout due to its high-quality protein and rapid absorption.
  3. Coconut Water: Good for hydration but lacks significant protein content for muscle recovery.
  4. Yogurt: Provides protein and some nutrients, but whey protein is more concentrated and specifically targeted for muscle building.
  5. None of these: Incorrect as whey protein is the best choice for post-workout needs.

51. Crush, Tear, and Curl are practiced in which crop?

Options:

  1. Tea
  2. Coffee
  3. Banana
  4. Cashew nut
  5. Betel nut

Answer:
Tea

Explanation:
Crush, Tear, and Curl (CTC) is a method used in the processing of tea leaves. This technique involves crushing the tea leaves, tearing them, and then curling them into small pieces to enhance flavor and quality. It is a standard method for processing black tea.

  1. Tea: Correct answer; CTC is specifically used for tea processing.
  2. Coffee: Coffee is processed differently, using methods such as roasting and grinding.
  3. Banana: Processing bananas involves peeling and slicing, not CTC.
  4. Cashew nut: Cashew nuts are processed by shelling and roasting.
  5. Betel nut: Processing betel nuts involves drying and curing, not CTC.

52. In which type of planting are seedlings planted close to each other, i.e., the spacing is kept lower than the normal spacing?

Options:

  1. High density planting
  2. Quincunx system
  3. Hexagonal system
  4. Square system
  5. Triangular system

Answer:
High density planting

Explanation:
High density planting involves planting crops with closer spacing than usual to increase the number of plants per unit area. This method is used to maximize land use and improve yields.

  1. High density planting: Correct answer; it involves closer planting for increased yield per area.
  2. Quincunx system: A planting arrangement where plants are placed in a staggered pattern, not necessarily high density.
  3. Hexagonal system: Plants are arranged in a hexagonal pattern, which can be used for high density but is not specifically defined as such.
  4. Square system: Plants are spaced in a square grid pattern, which does not imply high density.
  5. Triangular system: Plants are arranged in a triangular pattern, not specifically high density.

53. Epigeal germination occurs in which crop?

Options:

  1. Soybean
  2. Wheat
  3. Rice
  4. Maize
  5. Mango

Answer:
Soybean

Explanation:
Epigeal germination is a type of seed germination where the cotyledons (seed leaves) are lifted above the soil surface. Soybean seeds exhibit epigeal germination.

  1. Soybean: Correct answer; cotyledons are pulled above the soil.
  2. Wheat: Exhibits hypogeal germination, where cotyledons remain below the soil.
  3. Rice: Also exhibits hypogeal germination.
  4. Maize: Exhibits hypogeal germination.
  5. Mango: Generally exhibits hypogeal germination.

54. pF value of hygroscopic coefficient is:

Options:

  1. 4.5
  2. 7.0
  3. 7.5
  4. 2.3
  5. 1.5

Answer:
4.5

Explanation:
The hygroscopic coefficient of soil, which is the amount of moisture remaining in the soil after it has been dried to a constant weight in an oven, corresponds to a pF value of 4.5. This value indicates the soil’s ability to retain water against evaporation and is a measure of the soil’s moisture content under hygroscopic conditions.

  1. 4.5: Correct answer; represents the pF value for hygroscopic coefficient.
  2. 7.0: Higher than the pF value for hygroscopic coefficient.
  3. 7.5: Higher than the pF value for hygroscopic coefficient.
  4. 2.3: Represents a different soil moisture tension.
  5. 1.5: Represents a different soil moisture tension.

55. Paecilomyces lilacinus is a chemical used for the control of __

Options:

  1. Fungus
  2. Bacteria
  3. Virus
  4. Protozoa
  5. Nematode

Answer:
Nematode

Explanation:
Paecilomyces lilacinus is a naturally occurring fungus utilized as a biological control agent against nematodes. It works by infecting and killing nematodes that attack plant roots.

  1. Fungus: Incorrect; Paecilomyces lilacinus is itself a fungus and is used to control nematodes, not fungi.
  2. Bacteria: Incorrect; it is not used to control bacteria.
  3. Virus: Incorrect; it does not target viruses.
  4. Protozoa: Incorrect; it does not control protozoa.
  5. Nematode: Correct answer; it is specifically used to control nematodes by acting as a biological control agent.

56: The set of indicators or properties required to characterize soil quality or soil function is known as ______.

Options:

  1. Soil Quality index (SQI)
  2. Soil Conditioning Index (SCI)
  3. Soil Health Index (SHI)
  4. Threshold Data Set
  5. Mechanically Dispersed Clay (MDC)

Answer:
Soil Quality Index (SQI)

Explanation:
The Soil Quality Index (SQI) is a comprehensive measure that incorporates various indicators and properties to evaluate soil quality or function. It assesses factors like physical, chemical, and biological attributes to characterize overall soil health and performance.

  1. Soil Quality Index (SQI): Correct; it represents a set of indicators used to evaluate soil quality.
  2. Soil Conditioning Index (SCI): Incorrect; this measures the soil’s ability to improve over time rather than characterizing soil quality.
  3. Soil Health Index (SHI): Incorrect; while similar, SHI focuses more on biological aspects of soil health.
  4. Threshold Data Set: Incorrect; refers to specific data points rather than a comprehensive index.
  5. Mechanically Dispersed Clay (MDC): Incorrect; MDC is related to soil dispersion properties, not an index for soil quality.

57: Time (in min) required to kill a known population of microorganisms under certain conditions at a given lethal time is ___

Options:

  1. C value
  2. D value
  3. Z value
  4. F value
  5. A value

Answer:
F value

Explanation:
The F value represents the time required to kill a known population of microorganisms at a specific temperature. It is used in food processing and microbiology to measure the effectiveness of a sterilization process.

  1. C value: Incorrect; refers to the concentration of the microbial load, not the time for microbial death.
  2. D value: Incorrect; represents the time required to reduce the microbial population by 90% (or one log reduction).
  3. Z value: Incorrect; indicates the temperature change needed to change the D value by a factor of 10.
  4. F value: Correct; measures the time required to achieve a specified level of microbial death under given conditions.
  5. A value: Incorrect; not commonly used in this context.

58: Ooze test is used for the detection of ___

Options:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Virus
  4. Protozoa
  5. Virons

Answer:
Bacteria

Explanation:
The Ooze Test is used to detect bacterial infections. In this test, infected plant tissues are cut into small pieces and placed in water. The resulting turbidity and yellowish color in the water indicate the presence of bacteria.

  1. Bacteria: Correct; the ooze test specifically detects bacterial pathogens.
  2. Fungi: Incorrect; fungal infections are detected using different tests.
  3. Virus: Incorrect; viral infections require different detection methods.
  4. Protozoa: Incorrect; protozoan infections are not detected using the ooze test.
  5. Virons: Incorrect; virons refer to viral particles, not detected with this test.

59: Which of the following is known as fertilizer tree?

Options:

  1. Litchi
  2. Coconut
  3. Gliricidia
  4. Guava
  5. Papaya

Answer:
Gliricidia

Explanation:
Gliricidia is known as a “fertilizer tree” because it is used as green manure. It is a leguminous tree that can fix nitrogen from the atmosphere into the soil, improving soil fertility. Its foliage can be used as a natural fertilizer, and the tree is tolerant to pruning, making it a valuable resource in agroforestry systems.

  1. Litchi: Incorrect; a fruit tree not typically used for green manure.
  2. Coconut: Incorrect; a fruit-bearing tree not known for green manure properties.
  3. Gliricidia: Correct; known for its role as a green manure and fertilizer tree due to its nitrogen-fixing capabilities.
  4. Guava: Incorrect; primarily a fruit tree, not used as green manure.
  5. Papaya: Incorrect; a fruit tree not used as a fertilizer tree.

60: Microbes added to soils to decrease the level of contaminants from the root area of the plants is called as ___

Options:

  1. Bioaugmentation
  2. Rhizosphere Phytoremediation
  3. Bio Drainage
  4. Soil Enhancement
  5. None of them

Answer:
Bioaugmentation

Explanation:
Bioaugmentation involves adding specific microorganisms to the soil that can degrade or neutralize contaminants. This process helps in reducing the levels of pollutants in the soil and improving the quality of the rhizosphere for plant growth.

  1. Bioaugmentation: Correct; this process involves adding microorganisms to degrade contaminants in the soil.
  2. Rhizosphere Phytoremediation: Incorrect; refers to the use of plants and their associated microorganisms to remove contaminants.
  3. Bio Drainage: Incorrect; involves the use of plants to lower groundwater levels, not specifically for contaminant removal.
  4. Soil Enhancement: Incorrect; a broader term that includes various practices to improve soil quality, not specific to contaminant removal.
  5. None of them: Incorrect; the correct term is Bioaugmentation.

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2022-23 Previous Year Paper

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2022-23 Previous Year Paper

1. What is the excretory organ of the silkworm, located at the junction of the midgut and hindgut?

a) Proboscis
b) Malpighian tubules
c) Nephridia
d) Green glands
e) None

Answer: b) Malpighian tubules

Explanation:

The excretory organ of silkworms, which is located at the junction of the midgut and hindgut, is the Malpighian tubules.

Excretory System in Insects:

Insects have a specialized excretory system adapted to their needs, and the primary organs for excretion are the Malpighian tubules.

Malpighian Tubules:

  • Structure and Location: Malpighian tubules are fine, tubular structures found at the junction between the midgut and the hindgut. They extend into the insect’s body cavity (hemocoel).
  • Function: These tubules remove nitrogenous wastes and other metabolic byproducts from the insect’s hemolymph (analogous to blood in vertebrates). They also help regulate the insect’s internal ionic balance and water content.
  • Process:
    • Filtration: Cells lining the Malpighian tubules actively transport ions and metabolic wastes from the hemolymph into the tubule lumen. Water follows these solutes by osmosis.
    • Transport to Hindgut: The waste-laden fluid is then transported to the hindgut.
    • Reabsorption: As the fluid passes through the hindgut, essential ions and water are reabsorbed into the hemolymph, concentrating the waste.
    • Excretion: The concentrated waste is expelled from the body through the anus.

Other Options:

  • a) Proboscis: Not an excretory organ. It is a feeding and sucking organ, especially in butterflies and moths, used for feeding on nectar.
  • c) Nephridia: Excretory structures found in annelids (like earthworms), not insects.
  • d) Green glands: Excretory glands found in some crustaceans (like crabs and lobsters), not insects.
  • e) None: Incorrect, as the correct answer is Malpighian tubules.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Malpighian tubules. These tubules play a crucial role in the excretion and osmoregulation processes in silkworms and many other insects.

2. GnRH is released from which organ?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Ovary
c) Thyroid Gland
d) Pancreas
e) Uterus

Answer: a) Hypothalamus

Explanation:

What is GnRH?

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is a key hormone involved in the regulation of the reproductive system. It is crucial for the initiation and maintenance of reproductive hormone cycles in both males and females.

Origin of GnRH:

  • Hypothalamus: GnRH is synthesized and released by the hypothalamus, a small but vital region of the brain that acts as a major control center for many hormonal functions.

Function of GnRH:

  • Release of Gonadotropins: GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release two important gonadotropins: luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
    • LH and FSH: These hormones are critical for the function of the gonads (ovaries in females and testes in males). They regulate processes such as ovulation, spermatogenesis, and the production of sex steroids (estrogens and androgens).

Other Options:

  • b) Ovary: The ovary produces sex hormones like estrogen and progesterone, but it does not produce GnRH.
  • c) Thyroid Gland: The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones (thyroxine and triiodothyronine) and calcitonin, not GnRH.
  • d) Pancreas: The pancreas produces insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin, which are involved in glucose metabolism, but it does not produce GnRH.
  • e) Uterus: The uterus is involved in reproductive processes like implantation and menstruation but does not produce GnRH.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Hypothalamus. GnRH is produced and released by the hypothalamus, which then acts on the pituitary gland to regulate the reproductive hormones LH and FSH.

3. Type of silviculture system which can regenerate through seeds and the majority have a long life is ___

a) Pollarding
b) High forest
c) Coppicing
d) Forking
e) None

Answer: b) High forest

Explanation:

Silviculture Systems:

Silviculture is the practice of controlling the establishment, growth, composition, health, and quality of forests to meet diverse needs and values. Different silviculture systems are used depending on the desired outcomes, including the regeneration method and the longevity of the forest.

High Forest System:

  • Definition: The high forest system is a silviculture method where the forest is regenerated primarily through seeds rather than vegetative means. The resulting trees tend to have a long lifespan.
  • Regeneration:
    • Natural Regeneration: Seeds fall and germinate naturally on the forest floor.
    • Artificial Regeneration: Seeds or seedlings are planted by humans.
  • Characteristics:
    • Trees typically grow to full maturity and can have a long lifespan.
    • This system results in a forest with tall trees and a continuous canopy.
    • It is often used to produce high-quality timber.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Pollarding: This is a method of pruning trees in which the upper branches are cut back to promote a dense head of foliage and branches. It is not primarily for regeneration through seeds.
  • c) Coppicing: In this system, trees are cut back to their stumps to encourage new growth from the base or roots. This method relies on vegetative regeneration rather than seeds and typically results in shorter-lived trees.
  • d) Forking: This is not a recognized silviculture system and likely refers to a method of pruning or shaping trees rather than a system of regeneration.
  • e) None: This option is incorrect as the high forest system fits the criteria.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) High forest. The high forest system regenerates through seeds and is characterized by long-lived trees, making it a key method in silviculture for producing high-quality timber and maintaining continuous forest cover.

4. Empty barrels, plastic containers, or styrofoam bodies in cage culture can be used for what purpose?

a) Covering material
b) Float
c) Cage cover
d) Covering material
e) Sinker

Answer: b) Float

Explanation:

Cage Culture:

Cage culture is a method of fish farming where fish are raised in cages or enclosures submerged in a water body. This method allows for easy management and harvesting of the fish.

Purpose of Floats in Cage Culture:

  • Floats: Floats are essential components in cage culture systems. They are used to keep the cages afloat and ensure they remain at the desired position in the water column.
  • Materials Used as Floats: Empty barrels, plastic containers, and styrofoam bodies are commonly used as floats because they are buoyant, durable, and readily available. These materials help maintain the structural integrity and position of the cages.
    • Empty Barrels: Large, empty barrels are often used due to their significant buoyancy and ability to support the weight of the cage structure.
    • Plastic Containers: These are lightweight and provide sufficient buoyancy to keep cages afloat.
    • Styrofoam Bodies: Styrofoam is highly buoyant and resistant to water, making it an effective material for floats.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Covering material: This refers to materials used to cover or protect the cage, but empty barrels, plastic containers, and styrofoam are not typically used for this purpose.
  • c) Cage cover: This refers to a material or structure used to cover the top of the cage, protecting the fish from predators and environmental factors. The materials mentioned are not used for this purpose.
  • d) Covering material: Repetition of option (a), still incorrect in this context.
  • e) Sinker: Sinkers are used to anchor the cage to the bottom of the water body, ensuring it remains in place. The materials listed are buoyant and therefore not suitable as sinkers.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Float. Empty barrels, plastic containers, and styrofoam bodies are used in cage culture to provide buoyancy, keeping the cages afloat and stable in the water

5. During drying, some parts of the wood may dry rapidly while some may not. Because of this, improper drying shrinkage of wood occurs, resulting in the defect called ____

a) Cracking
b) Twist
c) Collapse
d) Warp
e) Case hardening

Answer: c) Collapse

Explanation:

Wood Drying and Defects:

Wood drying, or seasoning, is a critical process to reduce the moisture content of wood to make it suitable for use. Improper drying can lead to various defects due to uneven shrinkage and internal stresses.

Collapse:

  • Definition: Collapse refers to a defect in wood characterized by the flattening or deformation of wood cells, leading to a reduction in the wood’s dimensions. It is caused by uneven drying, where some parts of the wood dry more rapidly than others.
  • Mechanism: During drying, if the internal moisture is removed too quickly, the internal cell walls can collapse, causing the wood to distort and reduce in size unevenly. This often happens when wood is dried too rapidly at high temperatures or when there is uneven distribution of moisture within the wood.
  • Appearance: Collapse can appear as a sunken or distorted surface, often affecting the usability and structural integrity of the wood.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Cracking: Cracking, also known as checking, occurs when the wood dries too quickly on the surface while the interior remains moist, causing the outer layers to split. This is not the specific defect caused by uneven drying resulting in collapse.
  • b) Twist: Twist is a type of warping where the wood spirals along its length. It occurs due to differential shrinkage but is not the same as collapse.
  • d) Warp: Warping refers to any deviation from flatness, including bowing, twisting, and cupping, caused by uneven drying and shrinkage. While warping is a general term, collapse is a specific form of distortion due to cell wall flattening.
  • e) Case hardening: Case hardening occurs when the outer layers of wood dry and harden too quickly, trapping moisture inside. When the wood is cut or machined, the internal stresses can cause it to warp or crack. This is different from collapse, which involves the deformation of wood cells.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is c) Collapse. Collapse is a defect caused by improper drying where some parts of the wood dry rapidly while others do not, leading to uneven shrinkage and deformation of the wood cells.

 6. Sand percentage in sandy soil is ___
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 20%

e) 45%Answer: c) 80%

Explanation:

Soil Texture Classification:

Soil is classified based on the relative proportions of sand, silt, and clay particles. These classifications help determine the soil’s texture, which affects its water retention, drainage, and suitability for different plants.

Sandy Soil:

  • Definition: Sandy soil is composed predominantly of sand particles. It has a gritty texture and drains water quickly, making it less capable of retaining moisture and nutrients compared to soils with higher silt or clay content.
  • Sand Percentage: For soil to be classified as sandy, it must have a high percentage of sand particles.

Characteristics of Sandy Soil:

  • High Sand Content: Sandy soils typically have a sand content of around 70-90%, with 80% being a common benchmark.
  • Low Silt and Clay Content: The remaining 10-30% is composed of silt and clay particles.
  • Drainage: Sandy soils drain rapidly and have low water-holding capacity.
  • Aeration: They are well-aerated, allowing roots to receive plenty of oxygen.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) 40%: This percentage is too low for sandy soil; such a soil would have a significant amount of silt and/or clay, making it more of a loam.
  • b) 60%: While closer, this still indicates a significant proportion of silt or clay, suggesting a loam rather than a sandy soil.
  • d) 20%: This percentage is far too low for sandy soil and would classify the soil as clayey or silty.
  • e) 45%: This is nearly equal proportions of sand, silt, and clay, classifying it as a loam.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is c) 80%. Sandy soil typically contains around 80% sand, giving it its characteristic properties of good drainage and low water retention.

7. A destructive polyhedrosis disease of silkworm that is related to wilt and is marked by spotty yellowing of the skin and internal liquefaction, also called jaundice, is ___

a) Pebrine
b) Grasseries
c) Flacherie
d) Aspergillosis
e) None

Answer: b) Grasseries

Explanation:

Grasseries:

  • Definition: Grasseries, also known as nuclear polyhedrosis, is a viral disease affecting silkworms (Bombyx mori).
  • Causative Agent: The disease is caused by a baculovirus.
  • Symptoms:
    • Spotty Yellowing: The skin of the infected silkworms shows spotty yellow discoloration.
    • Internal Liquefaction: The internal tissues of the silkworms liquefy, which leads to a characteristic symptom known as jaundice.
    • Wilt: The silkworms become weak and wilt, showing a general decline in health and vigor.
    • Polyhedrosis: The name of the disease comes from the formation of polyhedral occlusion bodies within the infected cells.
  • Transmission: The virus is transmitted through contaminated food, environment, and contact with infected silkworms.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Pebrine: Pebrine is a disease caused by the microsporidian parasite Nosema bombycis. It is characterized by black spots on the skin of silkworms, rather than the yellowing and liquefaction seen in grasserie.
  • c) Flacherie: Flacherie is a bacterial or viral disease that causes general lethargy and diarrhea in silkworms. It does not specifically cause the spotty yellowing and internal liquefaction characteristic of grasserie.
  • d) Aspergillosis: Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus species, leading to respiratory problems in silkworms. It is not marked by spotty yellowing or internal liquefaction.
  • e) None: This option is incorrect as the correct answer is grasserie.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Grasseries. Grasseries is a viral disease in silkworms characterized by spotty yellowing of the skin, internal liquefaction, and symptoms akin to jaundice, leading to a wilted appearance.

8. Baby corn is harvested at which stage?

a) Before silking
b) Dough stage
c) Milking stage
d) After silking
e) After tasseling

Answer: d) After silking

Explanation:

Baby Corn:

Baby corn is a young ear of corn (Zea mays) that is harvested early, before the kernels fully mature. It is prized for its tender texture and is commonly used in salads, stir-fries, and other dishes.

Harvesting Stage:

  • After Silking: Baby corn is harvested just after the silks emerge but before the fertilization of the ovules, which leads to kernel development. The presence of silks indicates that the ear has reached the appropriate size for harvesting as baby corn.
    • Silking Stage: The silking stage occurs when the silks (female flowers) appear and are ready to receive pollen. For baby corn, this is the ideal stage for harvesting as the ears are still immature and tender.
    • Importance of Timing: If harvested too late, the kernels begin to develop and harden, which is undesirable for baby corn.

Other Stages Explained:

  • a) Before silking: Harvesting before silking would mean the ears are too immature and too small to be used as baby corn.
  • b) Dough stage: The dough stage is when the kernels are forming a dough-like consistency. This stage is too late for baby corn harvesting as the kernels have already started to develop.
  • c) Milking stage: The milking stage is when the kernels contain a milky fluid. This stage is also too late for baby corn as the kernels are too developed.
  • e) After tasseling: Tasseling is the stage when the male flowers (tassels) release pollen. Harvesting baby corn after tasseling but specifically after silking ensures that the ears are at the correct immature stage.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) After silking. Baby corn is harvested just after the silks emerge to ensure the ears are tender and the kernels have not yet started to develop, making it suitable for culinary uses as baby corn.

9. Among the following, which is an example of an amide fertilizer?

a) Ammonium nitrate
b) Ammonium sulphate
c) Urea
d) CAN
e) Calcium nitrate

Answer: c) Urea

Explanation:

Amide Fertilizer:

An amide fertilizer contains the amide group (-CONH2). These fertilizers are known for providing nitrogen in a form that plants can utilize efficiently.

Urea:

  • Chemical Composition: Urea is CO(NH2)2. It is the most common and widely used amide fertilizer.
  • Nitrogen Content: Urea has a high nitrogen content of about 46%, making it one of the most concentrated nitrogen fertilizers available.
  • Usage: It is extensively used in agriculture for providing the necessary nitrogen to crops, enhancing their growth and yield.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Ammonium nitrate: This is a nitrogen fertilizer with the chemical formula NH4NO3. It contains both ammonium and nitrate forms of nitrogen but does not have an amide group.
  • b) Ammonium sulphate: This is a nitrogen fertilizer with the formula (NH4)2SO4. It provides nitrogen in the ammonium form and also supplies sulfur but is not an amide.
  • d) CAN (Calcium Ammonium Nitrate): This is a nitrogen fertilizer with the chemical formula Ca(NO3)2•NH4NO3. It contains both calcium and nitrogen but not in an amide form.
  • e) Calcium nitrate: This is a nitrogen fertilizer with the formula Ca(NO3)2. It provides nitrogen in the nitrate form and calcium but does not contain an amide group.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is c) Urea. Urea is an amide fertilizer widely used for its high nitrogen content and effectiveness in promoting plant growth.

10. Red Delicious is a variety of which fruit?

a) Mango
b) Apple
c) Banana
d) Guava
e) Cherry

Answer: b) Apple

Explanation:

Red Delicious Apple:

  • Variety: Red Delicious is a well-known variety of apple.
  • Characteristics:
    • Appearance: The Red Delicious apple is easily recognizable by its bright red color and conical shape.
    • Flavor: It has a sweet flavor with a mildly crisp texture, making it a popular choice for fresh eating.
    • Cultivation: This variety is widely cultivated in various apple-growing regions around the world.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Mango: Red Delicious is not a variety of mango. Mango varieties include Alphonso, Haden, and Ataulfo.
  • c) Banana: Red Delicious is not a variety of banana. Banana varieties include Cavendish, Red Banana, and Plantain.
  • d) Guava: Red Delicious is not a variety of guava. Guava varieties include Allahabad Safeda, Lucknow 49, and Red Malaysian.
  • e) Cherry: Red Delicious is not a variety of cherry. Cherry varieties include Bing, Rainier, and Black Tartarian.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Apple. Red Delicious is a popular variety of apple known for its bright red color, sweet flavor, and crisp texture.

11. The process of parturition in rabbits is called ___

a) Kidding
b) Kindling
c) Lambing
d) Calving
e) None of these

Answer: b) Kindling

Explanation:

Parturition in Animals:

Parturition refers to the process of giving birth in animals. Different terms are used for this process depending on the species.

Kindling:

  • Definition: Kindling is the term specifically used for the parturition process in rabbits.
  • Process: During kindling, the female rabbit (doe) gives birth to her young ones (kits). This usually involves a relatively quick labor process where the doe delivers multiple kits in a single birthing event.

Other Terms Explained:

  • a) Kidding: This term is used for the parturition process in goats.
  • c) Lambing: This term is used for the parturition process in sheep.
  • d) Calving: This term is used for the parturition process in cattle.
  • e) None of these: This option is incorrect as “kindling” is the correct term.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Kindling. The process of parturition in rabbits is referred to as kindling.

12. The length of the estrous cycle of sheep is _____

a) 21 days
b) 10 days
c) 15-18 days
d) 30 days
e) 2-3 days

Answer: c) 15-18 days

Explanation:

Estrous Cycle in Sheep:

The estrous cycle is the reproductive cycle in female animals during which they come into heat, ovulate, and are capable of becoming pregnant.

Length of Estrous Cycle:

  • Sheep (Ovis aries): The estrous cycle in sheep typically lasts between 15 to 18 days. During this period, the ewe goes through various phases, including proestrus, estrus (heat), metestrus, and diestrus.
    • Proestrus: The follicular phase where follicles on the ovaries develop.
    • Estrus: The phase where the ewe is receptive to mating; ovulation occurs during this phase.
    • Metestrus: The phase following estrus, characterized by the development of the corpus luteum.
    • Diestrus: The luteal phase where the corpus luteum is fully functional.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) 21 days: This length is typical for the estrous cycle in cattle (cows).
  • b) 10 days: This is shorter than the typical estrous cycle for sheep.
  • d) 30 days: This length is too long for the estrous cycle of sheep.
  • e) 2-3 days: This length is much too short for the entire estrous cycle; it may correspond to the duration of the estrus (heat) phase in some species but not the full cycle.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is c) 15-18 days. The estrous cycle in sheep typically lasts between 15 to 18 days, encompassing the various phases necessary for reproduction.

13. Among the following, which is a component of the Knowledge Communication System?

a) Farmer
b) Exhibition
c) Newspaper
d) Government agency
e) Universities

Answer: a) Farmer

Explanation:

Knowledge Communication System:

A Knowledge Communication System (KCS) involves various components and processes designed to disseminate information and knowledge to enhance learning, decision-making, and action, particularly in sectors like agriculture, education, and technology.

Components of a Knowledge Communication System:

  • Farmer: Farmers are a crucial component of the Knowledge Communication System. They are the end-users of agricultural knowledge and information, and their feedback and needs help shape the system. They benefit from and contribute to the dissemination and application of knowledge.

Other Options Explained:

  • b) Exhibition: Exhibitions can be a method of knowledge dissemination but are not a component of the KCS itself.
  • c) Newspaper: Newspapers are a medium for knowledge communication but are not a core component of the KCS.
  • d) Government agency: Government agencies can be involved in the knowledge communication process but are not a direct component of the system.
  • e) Universities: Universities are key players in generating and disseminating knowledge but are not specifically a component of the KCS.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Farmer. In the context of a Knowledge Communication System, farmers are a fundamental component, as they are directly involved in the application and feedback of agricultural knowledge and practices.

14. Which secondary tillage operation is used for breaking of clods and pulverizing soil?

a) Tilling
b) Inter-cultivation
c) Harrowing
d) Planking
e) Fertigation

Answer: c) Harrowing

Explanation:

Secondary Tillage:

Secondary tillage refers to the operations performed after the primary tillage to refine the soil structure and prepare the seedbed for planting.

Harrowing:

  • Definition: Harrowing is a secondary tillage operation that involves using a harrow (a type of implement with metal or wooden bars or discs) to break up soil clods, level the soil surface, and incorporate residues.
  • Purpose: The main goals of harrowing are to:
    • Break Up Clods: Reduce large soil clods into finer particles.
    • Pulverize Soil: Create a finer and more uniform soil texture.
    • Level Soil: Ensure a smooth and even seedbed for planting.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Tilling: Tilling is a general term that includes both primary and secondary tillage operations. While it can involve breaking up soil, it is not specific to the secondary operation of clod breaking and pulverizing.
  • b) Inter-cultivation: This involves cultivating between rows of crops to control weeds and improve soil aeration but is not specifically for breaking clods.
  • d) Planking: Planking is the use of a heavy wooden or metal plank to level and firm the soil but is not specifically used for breaking clods.
  • e) Fertigation: Fertigation is the process of applying fertilizers through irrigation systems and does not involve tillage.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is c) Harrowing. Harrowing is specifically used for breaking up soil clods and pulverizing the soil to prepare a fine seedbed for planting.

15. Ufra disease in rice is caused by ___

a) Bacteria
b) Nematode
c) Virus
d) Fungus
e) None

Answer: b) Nematode

Explanation:

Ufra Disease:

Ufra disease is a significant pest-related issue affecting rice crops, particularly in some regions of Asia.

Causative Agent:

  • Nematode: Ufra disease in rice is caused by a nematode, specifically Ditylenchus angustus. This nematode is a plant-parasitic roundworm that infects the roots of rice plants.

Symptoms of Ufra Disease:

  • Root Damage: The nematodes invade and damage the roots, leading to reduced nutrient and water uptake.
  • Stunted Growth: Infected rice plants exhibit stunted growth, poor tillering, and reduced yield.
  • General Decline: Affected plants often show signs of general decline and poor health.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Bacteria: Bacterial diseases in rice include bacterial blight and bacterial leaf streak, not Ufra disease.
  • c) Virus: Viral diseases affecting rice include rice tungro and rice yellow mottle virus, but not Ufra disease.
  • d) Fungus: Fungal diseases in rice include rice blast and sheath blight, not Ufra disease.
  • e) None: This option is incorrect as Ufra disease is indeed caused by a nematode.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Nematode. Ufra disease in rice is caused by the nematode Ditylenchus angustus, which affects the roots and impacts the overall health and yield of the rice plants.

16. The term used to define the variation derived from any form of cell or tissue culture is known as __________

a) Genetic Engineering
b) Somaclonal variation
c) Genetic Variation
d) Environmental Variation
e) None of the above

Answer: b) Somaclonal variation

Explanation:

Somaclonal Variation:

  • Definition: Somaclonal variation refers to the genetic variation observed in plants that have been produced through tissue culture or cell culture techniques.
  • Cause: This variation arises due to genetic changes or mutations that occur during the process of tissue culture, where cells are cultured in vitro and then regenerated into whole plants.
  • Characteristics:
    • Genetic Changes: Variations may include changes in chromosome number, structure, or DNA sequence.
    • Phenotypic Differences: These changes can result in observable differences in plant traits, such as growth, morphology, or resistance to diseases.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Genetic Engineering: This involves the direct manipulation of an organism’s genes using biotechnology but does not specifically refer to variations arising from cell or tissue culture.
  • c) Genetic Variation: This is a broad term that refers to differences in DNA sequences among individuals of a species, not specifically related to tissue culture.
  • d) Environmental Variation: This refers to differences in traits caused by environmental factors rather than genetic changes.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect because “Somaclonal variation” is the correct term.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Somaclonal variation. This term specifically describes the genetic variation that occurs in plants derived from cell or tissue culture processes.

17. Acidic soil does not contain which of the following property?

a) >0.1% salinity
b) Iron and Aluminium accumulated in soil
c) CEC is low; base saturation is low
d) pH is low
e) None

Answer: a) >0.1% salinity

Explanation:

Properties of Acidic Soil:

Acidic soils are characterized by a pH lower than 6.0, indicating an excess of hydrogen ions. Here’s how each property relates to acidic soils:

  • a) >0.1% salinity: Salinity refers to the concentration of soluble salts in the soil. Acidic soils can have varying levels of salinity, but salinity itself is not a defining characteristic of soil acidity. Thus, acidic soils do not necessarily have high salinity levels.
  • b) Iron and Aluminium accumulated in soil: Acidic soils often have higher concentrations of iron and aluminum, which can leach out of the soil, leaving these metals accumulated in the soil.
  • c) CEC is low; base saturation is low: Cation Exchange Capacity (CEC) in acidic soils is generally low, and base saturation (the proportion of exchangeable bases) is also low due to the predominance of hydrogen ions.
  • d) pH is low: Acidic soils are defined by a low pH, which is a direct measure of their acidity.
  • e) None: This option is incorrect as there is an option that does not typically describe acidic soil.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) >0.1% salinity. While acidic soils may have varying levels of salinity, high salinity is not a defining characteristic of acidic soils. Acidic soils are more accurately described by their low pH, accumulation of iron and aluminum, and low CEC and base saturation.

18. Little Leaf of Brinjal is transmitted by?

a) Aphids
b) Planthopper – Hishimonus phycitis
c) Thrips
d) Birds
e) None of the above

Answer: b) Planthopper – Hishimonus phycitis

Explanation:

Little Leaf of Brinjal:

Little Leaf is a disease affecting brinjal (eggplant), causing stunted growth and reduced leaf size.

Transmission:

  • Planthopper – Hishimonus phycitis: This insect vector is responsible for transmitting the disease. The planthopper, Hishimonus phycitis, carries the pathogen that causes the Little Leaf disease in brinjal. When these insects feed on infected plants, they acquire the pathogen and can transmit it to healthy plants during subsequent feedings.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Aphids: Aphids are vectors for other plant diseases but are not known for transmitting Little Leaf in brinjal.
  • c) Thrips: Thrips can transmit various plant pathogens but are not associated with the transmission of Little Leaf disease in brinjal.
  • d) Birds: Birds are not known to transmit Little Leaf disease in brinjal.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect because the correct vector is Hishimonus phycitis.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Planthopper – Hishimonus phycitis. This planthopper is the primary vector responsible for transmitting the pathogen that causes Little Leaf disease in brinjal.

19. What is the botanical name of Sal tree?

a) Shorea robusta
b) Tectonia grandis
c) Grevillea robusta
d) Eucalyptus roxburghii
e) None of the above

Answer: a) Shorea robusta

Explanation:

Sal Tree:

  • Botanical Name: The Sal tree is scientifically named Shorea robusta.
  • Characteristics:
    • Family: Dipterocarpaceae
    • Distribution: It is native to the Indian subcontinent and can be found in tropical and subtropical regions.
    • Uses: Sal wood is valued for its durability and is used in construction, furniture making, and for producing charcoal. The tree is also significant in local ecosystems and traditional medicine.

Other Options Explained:

  • b) Tectonia grandis: The correct name for this tree is Tectona grandis, commonly known as Teak. It is a different species with different uses and characteristics.
  • c) Grevillea robusta: This is commonly known as the Silk Oak, which is different from the Sal tree.
  • d) Eucalyptus roxburghii: This is commonly known as the Roxburgh Eucalyptus, which is another distinct species.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect as Shorea robusta is the correct botanical name for the Sal tree.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Shorea robusta. This is the botanical name for the Sal tree, known for its valuable wood and ecological importance.

20. What is the critical time period for the daylight in long day plants?

a) 8-10 Hr
b) 10-12 Hr
c) 14-18 Hr
d) 20-24 Hr
e) None of the above

Answer: c) 14-18 Hr

Explanation:

Long Day Plants:

  • Definition: Long day plants are those that require longer daylight periods to initiate flowering. They typically flower when the length of the day exceeds a certain critical period.
  • Critical Daylight Duration: For long day plants, the critical period usually falls within the range of 14 to 18 hours of daylight. This period triggers the flowering process.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) 8-10 Hr: This duration is more typical for short day plants, which require shorter daylight periods to flower.
  • b) 10-12 Hr: This range is also more suited to short day or intermediate day plants rather than long day plants.
  • d) 20-24 Hr: This duration is too long for most long day plants and is not typically required for flowering.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect as 14-18 hours is the correct critical period for long day plants.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is c) 14-18 Hr. Long day plants require daylight periods within this range to initiate flowering effectively.

21. The process of shrinkage of the uterus of a cow after birth and expansion and relaxation of the mammary glands is called as____

a) Uterus involution
b) Lactogenesis
c) Galactogenesis
d) Parturition
e) Kidding

Answer: a) Uterus involution

Explanation:

Uterus Involution:

  • Definition: Uterus involution refers to the process by which the uterus returns to its normal size and condition after childbirth. This involves the shrinkage of the uterus as it recovers from the pregnancy and delivery process.
  • Associated Changes:
    • Shrinkage: The uterus decreases in size as it expels the excess tissue and returns to its pre-pregnancy state.
    • Recovery: It involves the healing of the uterine tissues and the restoration of normal uterine function.

Other Terms Explained:

  • b) Lactogenesis: This is the process of milk production beginning in the mammary glands after birth. It involves the development of the mammary glands to produce milk.
  • c) Galactogenesis: This term is sometimes used interchangeably with lactogenesis, referring to the process of milk secretion in the mammary glands.
  • d) Parturition: This refers to the act of giving birth, not the post-birth process of uterine shrinkage.
  • e) Kidding: This is the term used for the act of giving birth in goats, not related to uterine shrinkage in cows.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Uterus involution. This process involves the shrinkage of the uterus and the physiological changes following birth, including the expansion and relaxation of the mammary glands.

22. Which Himalayan breed of goat is found in Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh with long horns, curled backwards, droopy ears, small teats, and color is white but mostly brown or black and produces fine wool?

a) Gaddi
b) Sirohi
c) Osmanabadi
d) Malabari
e) None

Answer: a) Gaddi

Explanation:

Gaddi Goat:

  • Region: The Gaddi breed is native to the Himalayan regions, specifically found in Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
  • Physical Characteristics:
    • Horns: Long and curved backwards.
    • Ears: Droopy.
    • Teats: Small.
    • Color: White, but more commonly brown or black.
  • Wool: Known for producing fine wool, which is valuable for various uses.

Other Breeds Explained:

  • b) Sirohi: This breed is found in Rajasthan and is known for its meat and milk production rather than fine wool. Its physical features are different from the Gaddi.
  • c) Osmanabadi: This breed is primarily found in Maharashtra and is known for meat production. It has different physical characteristics and is not known for fine wool.
  • d) Malabari: This breed is found in Kerala and Tamil Nadu, known for its meat and milk production, and does not have the wool characteristics described.
  • e) None: This option is incorrect because the Gaddi breed matches the description provided.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Gaddi. This breed is characterized by its long, backward-curved horns, droopy ears, small teats, and wool characteristics, and is found in the specified Himalayan regions.

23. The statutory body which is not under the Ministry of Commerce and Industries is:

a) Tobacco Board
b) Coffee Board
c) Rubber Board
d) Cardamom Board
e) Tea Board

Answer: d) Cardamom Board

Explanation:

Statutory Bodies Under Ministry of Commerce and Industries:

  • a) Tobacco Board: This board is responsible for the regulation and promotion of the tobacco industry and operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • b) Coffee Board: This board promotes the coffee industry and operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • c) Rubber Board: This board regulates and supports the rubber industry and is also under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • e) Tea Board: This board oversees the tea industry and operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Cardamom Board:

  • d) Cardamom Board: The Cardamom Board, unlike the other boards mentioned, operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It focuses on the development and regulation of cardamom cultivation and trade.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) Cardamom Board. The Cardamom Board is the statutory body that operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, while the others are under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

24. A person performs vegetable cultivation, fishery, and woody crops but that is for self-consumption. It is called as:

a) Agrisilviculture
b) Agrihortisilviculture
c) Agri-olericulture
d) Homestead agroforestry
e) None

Answer: d) Homestead agroforestry

Explanation:

Homestead Agroforestry:

  • Definition: Homestead agroforestry refers to the integration of various agricultural practices, including vegetable cultivation, fishery, and woody crops, within a homestead or small-scale farm primarily for personal consumption rather than commercial purposes.
  • Characteristics:
    • Diverse Activities: It includes a mix of agricultural and forestry practices such as growing vegetables, cultivating fish, and managing woody crops.
    • Self-Consumption: The produce is typically used for the household’s own consumption rather than for market sale.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Agrisilviculture: This involves the integration of agriculture and forestry practices where tree crops and agricultural crops are grown together, often on a commercial scale.
  • b) Agrihortisilviculture: This refers to the integration of agriculture, horticulture, and forestry. It may involve a combination of practices, but the focus is not specifically on self-consumption.
  • c) Agri-olericulture: This term is used for the cultivation of vegetables (olericulture) along with other agricultural practices, but it does not specifically refer to the integration of fishery and woody crops for self-consumption.
  • e) None: This option is incorrect as “Homestead agroforestry” is a suitable term for the described practice.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) Homestead agroforestry. This term accurately describes the integration of vegetable cultivation, fishery, and woody crops for self-consumption within a homestead setting.

25. Revolving Fund: DAY-NRLM, MoRD, would provide Revolving Fund (RF) support to SHGs in existence for a minimum period of 3/6 months and follow the norms of good SHGs, i.e. they follow ‘Panchasutra’ – regular meetings, regular savings, regular internal lending, regular recoveries, and maintenance of proper books of accounts. Only such SHGs that have not received any RF earlier would be provided with RF, as corpus, with a minimum of _______ and up to a maximum of _____ per SHG. The purpose of RF is to strengthen their institutional and financial management capacity and build a good credit history within the group.

a) 10000-15000
b) 15000-20000
c) 25000-30000
d) 25000-50000
e) None of the above

Answer: a) 10000-15000

Explanation:

Revolving Fund (RF) under DAY-NRLM:

  • Purpose: The Revolving Fund is provided to Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to enhance their institutional and financial management capacity and establish a strong credit history. It serves as an initial capital to help SHGs with their activities and operations.
  • Eligibility: SHGs that have been in existence for at least 3 to 6 months and adhere to the ‘Panchasutra’ norms (regular meetings, savings, internal lending, recoveries, and proper bookkeeping) are eligible for RF support. The SHGs must not have previously received RF to qualify for this support.

RF Amount:

  • Minimum Amount: ₹10,000
  • Maximum Amount: ₹15,000
  • Purpose: This financial support helps strengthen the SHGs and build their capacity for better financial management and creditworthiness.

Other Options Explained:

  • b) 15000-20000: This range is higher than the amount typically provided under the RF scheme.
  • c) 25000-30000: This range is also higher than the standard RF amount.
  • d) 25000-50000: This amount exceeds the usual range for the Revolving Fund support.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect as the specified range (₹10,000 to ₹15,000) is correct.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) 10000-15000. This is the range of financial support provided to eligible SHGs under the DAY-NRLM Revolving Fund scheme.

26. The curd is precipitated using rennet or any other enzyme and then filtered. What is formed from this?

a) Yoghurt
b) Cheese
c) Ghee
d) Butter
e) Cream

Answer: b) Cheese

Explanation:

Cheese Production:

  • Process: Cheese is made by curdling milk using rennet or other enzymes. This process separates the milk into curds (solid) and whey (liquid). The curds are then collected, filtered, and often aged to develop the cheese’s flavor and texture.
  • Ingredients: Rennet (an enzyme derived from the stomachs of young ruminants) or other coagulating agents are used to precipitate the curds from the milk.

Other Dairy Products:

  • a) Yoghurt: Made by fermenting milk with specific bacterial cultures (lactic acid bacteria), not by using rennet.
  • c) Ghee: Clarified butter made by simmering butter to remove moisture and milk solids, not by precipitating curds.
  • d) Butter: Produced by churning cream to separate butterfat from buttermilk, not by using rennet.
  • e) Cream: The fatty part of milk that rises to the top, not formed by precipitating curds.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Cheese. The process described, involving the use of rennet or enzymes to precipitate curds from milk and then filtering, results in the formation of cheese.

27. The process of removal of stamens or anthers or killing the pollen of a flower without harming the female reproductive organ is known as:

a) Emasculation
b) Male sterility
c) Self incompatibility
d) Parthenogenesis
e) None of the above

Answer: a) Emasculation

Explanation:

Emasculation:

  • Definition: Emasculation is the process of removing or destroying the stamens (male parts) or anthers (the pollen-producing structures) of a flower while leaving the female parts (pistil) intact. This is done to prevent self-pollination and facilitate controlled cross-pollination.
  • Purpose: Often used in plant breeding programs to ensure that pollen from a different plant is used for fertilization, thus ensuring genetic diversity and desired traits in the offspring.

Other Terms Explained:

  • b) Male sterility: A condition where male parts of the plant are non-functional or unable to produce viable pollen. This is a different concept from emasculation.
  • c) Self incompatibility: A genetic mechanism that prevents self-pollination and encourages cross-pollination, but it is not specifically about the removal of stamens.
  • d) Parthenogenesis: A form of asexual reproduction where an egg develops into a new individual without fertilization, unrelated to the process of removing stamens.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect as “Emasculation” is the correct term for the described process.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Emasculation. This process involves removing or killing the male reproductive parts of a flower to prevent self-pollination and promote controlled cross-pollination.

28. Which scheme is providing guaranteed 100 days of employment for unskilled and manual labor?

a) MGNREGA

b) NRLM

c) PMMSY

d) PMKSY

e) None of the above

Answer: a) MGNREGA

Explanation:

MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act):

  • Purpose: MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment per financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  • Objective: The scheme aims to enhance the livelihood security of people in rural areas by providing them with wage employment and creating durable assets for the community.

Other Schemes Explained:

  • b) NRLM (National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme): This is actually another name for MGNREGA; however, it is more commonly referred to as MGNREGA in practice.
  • c) PMMSY (Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana): This scheme focuses on the development of the fisheries sector, not on providing guaranteed employment.
  • d) PMKSY (Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana): This scheme is aimed at improving irrigation facilities in agriculture, not at providing guaranteed employment.
  • e) None of the above: This option is incorrect as MGNREGA is the correct scheme providing guaranteed employment.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) MGNREGA. This scheme ensures 100 days of guaranteed wage employment for unskilled and manual labor in rural areas.

29. Which hormone is involved in the conversion of glycogen to glucose?

a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
c) Testosterone
d) Progesterone
e) Somatotropin

Answer: a) Glucagon

Explanation:

Glucagon:

  • Function: Glucagon is a hormone produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas. It plays a crucial role in maintaining blood glucose levels by stimulating the conversion of glycogen (stored in the liver) into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream.
  • Mechanism: When blood glucose levels are low, glucagon is secreted to trigger glycogenolysis (the breakdown of glycogen into glucose) and increase blood sugar levels.

Other Hormones Explained:

  • b) Insulin: This hormone, produced by the beta cells of the pancreas, facilitates the uptake of glucose into cells and promotes the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage. It lowers blood glucose levels rather than increasing them.
  • c) Testosterone: A hormone involved in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and does not play a role in glucose metabolism.
  • d) Progesterone: A hormone involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, with no direct role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose.
  • e) Somatotropin: Also known as growth hormone, it influences growth and metabolism but is not directly involved in the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Glucagon. This hormone is specifically responsible for converting glycogen to glucose, thus increasing blood sugar levels.

30. During the rainy and winter seasons, how is the sowing of maize typically done?

a) Ridges and furrows
b) Flat bed
c) Sunken bed
d) Any of them
e) None of them

Answer: a) Ridges and furrows

Explanation:

Ridges and Furrows:

  • Method: Sowing maize in ridges and furrows is a common practice during the rainy and winter seasons. This method involves creating raised rows (ridges) with channels (furrows) in between.
  • Advantages:
    • Drainage: Ridges help in better drainage of excess water, which is crucial during the rainy season to prevent waterlogging and root diseases.
    • Soil Aeration: This method improves soil aeration and reduces the risk of waterlogging.
    • Temperature Regulation: Ridges can also help in maintaining optimal soil temperature, which is beneficial during cooler winter months.

Other Methods Explained:

  • b) Flat bed: Sowing on flat beds can lead to waterlogging during heavy rains and may not be ideal for maize in rainy conditions.
  • c) Sunken bed: This method is used for waterlogging-prone areas but is less common for maize sowing, particularly in the context of improving drainage.
  • d) Any of them: While other methods may be used in specific conditions, ridges and furrows are the most recommended for handling the rainy and winter seasons effectively.
  • e) None of them: This option is incorrect as ridges and furrows are indeed a suitable method for sowing maize during these seasons.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Ridges and furrows. This method is preferred for maize sowing during the rainy and winter seasons due to its advantages in managing water and soil conditions.

31. Which of the following hormones is involved in the conversion of glycogen to glucose?

a) Somatotropin
b) Glucagon
c) Progesterone
d) Estragon
e) Insulin

Answer: b) Glucagon

Explanation:

Glucagon:

  • Function: Glucagon is a hormone produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas. It plays a crucial role in increasing blood glucose levels by promoting the conversion of glycogen (stored in the liver) into glucose.
  • Mechanism: When blood glucose levels are low, glucagon is released and stimulates glycogenolysis (the breakdown of glycogen into glucose) in the liver, raising blood glucose levels.

Other Hormones Explained:

  • a) Somatotropin: Also known as growth hormone, it affects growth and metabolism but is not directly involved in converting glycogen to glucose.
  • c) Progesterone: This hormone is involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, not in glucose metabolism.
  • d) Estragon: Likely a misspelling of “estrogen,” which is involved in reproductive functions and not in glycogen conversion.
  • e) Insulin: This hormone, produced by the beta cells of the pancreas, lowers blood glucose levels by facilitating glucose uptake and converting it into glycogen, rather than promoting the breakdown of glycogen.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Glucagon. This hormone is specifically responsible for the conversion of glycogen to glucose, helping to increase blood sugar levels.

32. Crossing of two different pairs of alleles, having different traits is known as:

a) Monohybrid
b) Dihybrid
c) Test Cross
d) Back Cross
e) Top Cross

Answer: b) Dihybrid

Explanation:

Dihybrid Cross:

  • Definition: A dihybrid cross involves the examination of two different pairs of alleles, each contributing to different traits. For example, crossing two plants that differ in two traits such as flower color and plant height.
  • Purpose: This type of cross is used to study the inheritance patterns of two traits simultaneously and follows the principles of Mendelian genetics.

Other Terms Explained:

  • a) Monohybrid Cross: This involves crossing two individuals that differ in a single trait or pair of alleles. For example, crossing plants that differ only in flower color.
  • c) Test Cross: A test cross involves crossing an individual with a dominant phenotype but unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual to determine the genotype of the dominant individual.
  • d) Back Cross: Also known as a recombinant cross, this involves crossing a hybrid individual with one of its parents or with an individual that is genetically similar to one of its parents.
  • e) Top Cross: This involves crossing a superior variety (top cross) with a different variety to evaluate the performance of hybrids.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Dihybrid. This term describes the crossing of individuals differing in two pairs of alleles, each contributing to different traits.

33. What is the limit of credit for Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) under Priority Sector Lending for agriculture production purposes?

a) 1 Cr
b) 2 Cr
c) 5 Cr
d) 10 Cr
e) 12.50 Cr

Answer: b) 2 Cr

Explanation:

Priority Sector Lending (PSL):

  • Definition: Priority Sector Lending refers to the portion of a bank’s lending that is directed towards sectors considered important for economic and social development, including agriculture.
  • FPOs (Farmer Producer Organizations): FPOs are entities formed by farmers to collectively undertake agricultural activities, improve production efficiency, and enhance market access.

Credit Limit for FPOs:

  • Agriculture Production: For agricultural production purposes under PSL, the credit limit provided to FPOs is up to ₹2 crore.
  • Purpose: This limit is set to support FPOs in financing their agricultural operations, which may include purchasing inputs, improving infrastructure, and other production-related activities.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) 1 Cr: This limit is lower than the actual credit limit for FPOs.
  • c) 5 Cr: This limit exceeds the standard credit limit under PSL for agriculture production.
  • d) 10 Cr: This limit is also higher than the standard credit limit.
  • e) 12.50 Cr: This limit is significantly higher than the established credit limit.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) 2 Cr. This is the limit of credit that can be provided to FPOs under Priority Sector Lending for agriculture production purposes.

34. The finfish which contributes the maximum to global aquaculture is:

a) Silver carp
b) Common carp
c) Catla
d) Rohu
e) Grass carp

Answer: b) Common carp

Explanation:

Common Carp:

  • Importance: The Common carp (Cyprinus carpio) is one of the most widely cultivated and significant species in global aquaculture. It is extensively farmed due to its adaptability to various environmental conditions and its ability to grow rapidly.
  • Global Contribution: The Common carp contributes significantly to global aquaculture production, particularly in countries like China, which is a major producer.

Other Finfish Explained:

  • a) Silver Carp: While important in aquaculture, especially in Asian countries, it does not surpass the Common carp in global contribution.
  • c) Catla: This is an important species in South Asian aquaculture but is less widely farmed globally compared to Common carp.
  • d) Rohu: Another significant fish in South Asian aquaculture, but not as widely distributed globally as Common carp.
  • e) Grass Carp: Important in certain aquaculture practices, particularly for weed control, but does not contribute as much to global aquaculture as Common carp.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Common carp. This species is the most significant contributor to global aquaculture due to its widespread cultivation and adaptability.

35. The scientific name of grass carp is:

a) Ctenopharyngodon idella
b) Cyprinus carpio
c) Cirrihinus mirrigala
d) Labeo rohita
e) Catla catla

Answer: a) Ctenopharyngodon idella

Explanation:

Grass Carp:

  • Scientific Name: The scientific name for grass carp is Ctenopharyngodon idella. This species is known for its role in controlling aquatic vegetation and is widely used in aquaculture for its herbivorous feeding habits.

Other Species Explained:

  • b) Cyprinus carpio: This is the scientific name for Common carp.
  • c) Cirrihinus mirrigala: This is the scientific name for the fish commonly known as the Catla or Catla catla.
  • d) Labeo rohita: This is the scientific name for Rohu, a significant species in South Asian aquaculture.
  • e) Catla catla: This is the scientific name for Catla, also known as Catla catla.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Ctenopharyngodon idella. This is the scientific name for grass carp.

36. In the Rational equation used to determine peak discharge from drainage basin runoff, Q=CIAQ = CIA, what does CC stand for?

a) Peak discharge, cfs
b) Runoff coefficient
c) Rainfall intensity, inch/hour
d) Drainage area, acre
e) Runoff potential

Answer: b) Runoff coefficient

Explanation:

Rational Equation:

  • Equation: The Rational equation is used to estimate the peak discharge (QQ) from a drainage basin, and is given by Q=CIAQ = CIA, where:
    • QQ is the peak discharge (cubic feet per second, cfs).
    • CC is the runoff coefficient.
    • II is the rainfall intensity (inches per hour).
    • AA is the drainage area (acres).

Meaning of CC:

  • Runoff Coefficient: The runoff coefficient (CC) represents the fraction of total rainfall that will appear as runoff. It is a dimensionless value that varies depending on the land use, soil type, and other factors influencing runoff.

Other Terms Explained:

  • a) Peak discharge, cfs: This is what the equation calculates, not what CC stands for.
  • c) Rainfall intensity, inch/hour: This is represented by II in the equation.
  • d) Drainage area, acre: This is represented by AA in the equation.
  • e) Runoff potential: This is a general term that might relate to runoff but is not specifically represented by CC in the Rational equation.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Runoff coefficient. In the Rational equation Q=CIAQ = CIA, CC stands for the runoff coefficient.

37. The old man cactus is a species of cactus native to Hidalgo and Veracruz in central Mexico. What is the scientific name of the old man cactus?

a) Cereus spp.
b) Echinocactus
c) Oerocem trails
d) Cephalocereus senilis
e) Opuntia humifusa

Answer: d) Cephalocereus senilis

Explanation:

Old Man Cactus:

  • Common Name: The old man cactus gets its name from the long, white, hair-like spines that cover the plant, giving it the appearance of an old man.
  • Native Habitat: This cactus is native to the regions of Hidalgo and Veracruz in central Mexico.

Scientific Name:

  • d) Cephalocereus senilis: This is the correct scientific name for the old man cactus. The species is well known for its distinctive appearance and is a popular ornamental plant.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Cereus spp.: This is a different genus of cacti, not specifically the old man cactus.
  • b) Echinocactus: This refers to a different group of cacti known for their barrel shape.
  • c) Oerocem trails: This appears to be a misspelling or incorrect name and does not correspond to any known cactus species.
  • e) Opuntia humifusa: This is a species of prickly pear cactus, not the old man cactus.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) Cephalocereus senilis. This is the scientific name for the old man cactus.

38. What is the process by which the cow regurgitates previously consumed feed and chews it further?

a) Digestion
b) Excretion
c) Absorption
d) Rumination
e) Bloating

Answer: d) Rumination

Explanation:

Rumination:

  • Definition: Rumination is the process by which cows and other ruminants regurgitate previously consumed feed from the stomach back to the mouth to chew it again. This process helps break down fibrous plant material, making it easier to digest.
  • Mechanism: The food is initially swallowed and enters the rumen, the first stomach compartment. After partial digestion, the cow regurgitates the food (now called cud) and chews it further before swallowing it again for complete digestion.

Other Processes Explained:

  • a) Digestion: This is the overall process of breaking down food in the digestive system but does not specifically refer to the regurgitation and rechewing of food.
  • b) Excretion: This is the process of eliminating waste products from the body and does not involve regurgitation or chewing of food.
  • c) Absorption: This is the process by which nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream from the digestive tract.
  • e) Bloating: This is a condition where the stomach fills with gas, causing discomfort, and is unrelated to the regurgitation and rechewing process.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) Rumination. This term specifically describes the process by which cows regurgitate and chew previously consumed feed.

39. Which Institute of the UN collects and maintains data related to food production, consumption, and hunger-related information of various countries?

a) FSSAI
b) FCI
c) UNICEF
d) FAO
e) APEDA

Answer: d) FAO

Explanation:

FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization):

  • Role: The FAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. It collects, analyzes, and disseminates data related to food production, consumption, and hunger globally.
  • Functions: The FAO works on improving agriculture, forestry, and fisheries practices to ensure good nutrition and food security worldwide. It also provides a platform for countries to meet and discuss policy and best practices in these areas.

Other Organizations Explained:

  • a) FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India): This is an Indian governmental body responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
  • b) FCI (Food Corporation of India): This is an Indian government organization that manages the procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains in India.
  • c) UNICEF (United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund): This UN agency works on issues related to children’s rights, survival, development, and protection, but it does not specifically focus on food production data.
  • e) APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority): This is an Indian government agency that promotes the export of agricultural and processed food products.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization). This UN agency is responsible for collecting and maintaining data related to food production, consumption, and hunger for various countries.

40. Which post-harvest process is done in paddy before dehusking, involving partial boiling of the paddy before milling in order to increase its nutritional value, change the texture of cooked rice, and reduce the breakage in milling?

a) Parboiling
b) Polishing
c) Dehusking
d) Winnowing
e) Polsenke value

Answer: a) Parboiling

Explanation:

Parboiling:

  • Definition: Parboiling is the process of partially boiling paddy (unmilled rice) before dehusking. It involves soaking, steaming, and drying the paddy before milling.
  • Purpose:
    • Increases Nutritional Value: Parboiling helps in retaining more nutrients by driving the vitamins and minerals from the bran into the grain.
    • Changes Texture: It alters the texture of the rice, making it firmer and less sticky when cooked.
    • Reduces Breakage: The process helps in hardening the grain, which reduces the breakage of rice during milling.

Other Processes Explained:

  • b) Polishing: This is the process of removing the bran layer from the rice grain to give it a shiny appearance but does not involve boiling.
  • c) Dehusking: This is the process of removing the husk (outer shell) from the paddy but is a separate step from parboiling.
  • d) Winnowing: This is a method used to separate the grain from the chaff using air or wind.
  • e) Polsenke value: This term is not related to the parboiling process.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) Parboiling. This process is done before dehusking and involves partial boiling of paddy to increase nutritional value, change the texture, and reduce breakage during milling.

41. The part of the engine where ignition and mixing of fuel and air take place and gases get sufficient place to mix air by which the engine can produce power is:

a) Crankshaft
b) Camshaft
c) Flywheel
d) Rocker’s arm
e) Cylinder

Answer: e) Cylinder

Explanation:

Cylinder:

  • Function: The cylinder is the part of the engine where the combustion process occurs. It is the chamber where the fuel and air mixture is ignited and burned.
  • Combustion Process: In the cylinder, fuel and air mix and are ignited by the spark plug (in gasoline engines) or by compression (in diesel engines). This combustion process generates the power that drives the piston down and ultimately powers the engine.

Other Engine Parts Explained:

  • a) Crankshaft: The crankshaft converts the linear motion of the pistons into rotational motion to drive the wheels.
  • b) Camshaft: The camshaft controls the opening and closing of the engine’s intake and exhaust valves.
  • c) Flywheel: The flywheel helps to smooth out the engine’s power delivery and provides rotational inertia.
  • d) Rocker’s arm: The rocker arm transmits the motion from the camshaft to the engine’s valves.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is e) Cylinder. This is the part of the engine where the ignition and mixing of fuel and air take place, allowing the engine to produce power.

42. The part of the engine where ignition and mixing of fuel and air take place and gases get sufficient place to mix air by which the engine can produce power is:

a) Crankshaft
b) Camshaft
c) Flywheel
d) Rocker’s arm
e) Cylinder

Answer: e) Cylinder

Explanation:

Cylinder:

  • Function: The cylinder is the part of the engine where the combustion process occurs. It is the chamber where the fuel and air mixture is ignited and burned.
  • Combustion Process: In the cylinder, fuel and air mix and are ignited by the spark plug (in gasoline engines) or by compression (in diesel engines). This combustion process generates the power that drives the piston down and ultimately powers the engine.

Other Engine Parts Explained:

  • a) Crankshaft: The crankshaft converts the linear motion of the pistons into rotational motion to drive the wheels.
  • b) Camshaft: The camshaft controls the opening and closing of the engine’s intake and exhaust valves.
  • c) Flywheel: The flywheel helps to smooth out the engine’s power delivery and provides rotational inertia.
  • d) Rocker’s arm: The rocker arm transmits the motion from the camshaft to the engine’s valves.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is e) Cylinder. This is the part of the engine where the ignition and mixing of fuel and air take place, allowing the engine to produce power.

43. ………………….is non-living organic matter within soil, derived from the microbial decomposition of plants and animals.
a) Soil colloids
b) Lipids
c) Polysaccharides
d) Humus
e) Lignin

Answer: d) Humus

Explanation:

Humus:

  • Definition: Humus is a dark, organic material that forms in soil when plant and animal matter decays. It is created through the decomposition process carried out by microorganisms.
  • Role in Soil:
    • Improves Soil Structure: Humus helps in binding soil particles together, improving soil structure and porosity.
    • Nutrient Supply: It is rich in nutrients essential for plant growth and helps in retaining moisture in the soil.
    • Soil Fertility: Humus contributes to the overall fertility of the soil by supplying necessary nutrients and improving the soil’s ability to retain them.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Soil colloids: These are tiny particles in the soil, including clay and organic matter, that have a large surface area and play a crucial role in soil chemistry and nutrient retention.
  • b) Lipids: These are organic compounds that are fatty acids or their derivatives, not typically referred to as non-living organic matter in soil.
  • c) Polysaccharides: These are long carbohydrate molecules composed of monosaccharide units, which can be a part of organic matter but are not the decomposed matter itself.
  • e) Lignin: This is a complex organic polymer found in the cell walls of plants, giving them rigidity and is one of the components that decompose to form humus.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is d) Humus. This non-living organic matter within soil is derived from the microbial decomposition of plants and animals.

44. The process of removing the green colouring (known as chlorophyll) from the skin of citrus fruit. This is achieved by introducing measured amounts of ethylene gas into a temperature and humidity controlled environment. This is known as:

a) Ripening
b) Degreening
c) Physiological maturity
d) Denavelling
e) Dehusking

Answer: b) Degreening

Explanation:

Degreening:

  • Definition: Degreening is the process used to remove the green color from the skin of citrus fruits. This green color is due to the presence of chlorophyll.
  • Process: Ethylene gas is introduced in a controlled environment with specific temperature and humidity settings to break down chlorophyll and promote the development of the natural color of the fruit. This process is particularly used for citrus fruits like oranges, lemons, and grapefruits.
  • Purpose: The goal is to enhance the visual appeal of the fruit, making it more marketable, while ensuring the fruit reaches the desired ripeness.

Other Processes Explained:

  • a) Ripening: This is the natural process by which fruits become sweeter, less green, and softer. While ethylene gas can also be used to hasten ripening, degreening specifically targets the removal of chlorophyll.
  • c) Physiological maturity: This refers to the stage when the fruit has developed to its full size and is ready to ripen. It is a different concept from degreening.
  • d) Denavelling: This term is not commonly associated with any known fruit processing technique.
  • e) Dehusking: This is the process of removing the husk or outer shell from fruits, grains, or seeds, which is not related to removing green coloring.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Degreening. This process involves removing the green chlorophyll from the skin of citrus fruits using ethylene gas in a controlled environment.

45. The germination percentage in onion in case of certified seeds is:

a) 90%
b) 99%
c) 85%
d) 80%
e) 70%

Answer: e) 70%

Explanation:

Certified Seeds:

  • Definition: Certified seeds are seeds of high quality that meet specific standards set by certifying agencies. They ensure high purity and germination rates.
  • Germination Percentage: This refers to the percentage of seeds that are expected to successfully germinate under optimal conditions.

Germination Percentage for Onion:

  • Standard for Certified Seeds: For onion, the germination percentage for certified seeds is generally set at 70%. This means that 70% of the seeds in a given batch are expected to germinate and produce viable seedlings.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) 90%: This is a high germination percentage typically expected for some other crops or higher quality seed lots.
  • b) 99%: This is an exceptionally high percentage not commonly expected for most certified seeds.
  • c) 85%: This is higher than the standard percentage for certified onion seeds.
  • d) 80%: This is higher than the standard germination percentage for certified onion seeds but might be expected for some other crops.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is e) 70%. Certified onion seeds are expected to have a germination percentage of 70%.

46 ………………………….. are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone.

a) Deciduous trees
b) Evergreen trees
c) Mangrove trees
d) Shelterbelts
e) Chirpine

Answer: c) Mangrove trees

Explanation:

Mangrove Trees:
Definition: Mangrove trees are a group of trees and shrubs that thrive in the coastal intertidal zones, where they are regularly inundated by seawater.
Habitat: They are typically found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.
Adaptations:
Root Systems: Mangroves have specialized root systems, such as prop roots and pneumatophores, which help them stabilize in soft, waterlogged soils and obtain oxygen.
Salt Tolerance: They have mechanisms to exclude, excrete, or store salt, allowing them to survive in saline environments.
Other Options Explained:
a) Deciduous trees: These are trees that shed their leaves annually and are not specifically adapted to coastal intertidal zones.
b) Evergreen trees: These trees retain their leaves year-round but are not necessarily adapted to coastal intertidal zones.
d) Shelterbelts: These are rows of trees or shrubs planted to protect an area from wind and erosion, not specifically coastal or intertidal.
e) Chirpine: Chir pine (Pinus roxburghii) is a species of pine tree native to the Himalayas, not associated with coastal intertidal zones.
Conclusion:
The correct answer is c) Mangrove trees. These trees and shrubs are uniquely adapted to live in the coastal intertidal zone, where they play a crucial role in coastal ecosystems.

47. The Quincunx system accommodates how much more plants than the square system of planting?

a) 2 times
b) 1.5 times
c) 3 times
d) 4 times
e) 10 times

Answer: a) 2 times

Explanation:

Quincunx System:

  • Definition: The Quincunx system is a planting pattern where plants are arranged in a square grid with an additional plant placed in the center of each square. This arrangement forms a diamond-like pattern.
  • Plant Density: By adding a central plant to each square, the number of plants per unit area increases.

Calculation:

  • Square System: In the square system, plants are arranged in rows and columns, forming perfect squares.
  • Quincunx System: In the Quincunx system, the number of plants is increased by placing an additional plant in the center of each square formed by four plants of the square system.

The Quincunx system effectively doubles the number of plants in the same area compared to the square system because it adds an extra plant to each square formed by four plants.

Other Options Explained:

  • b) 1.5 times: This would mean adding 50% more plants, which is not the case in the Quincunx system.
  • c) 3 times: This would mean tripling the number of plants, which is not the case.
  • d) 4 times: This would mean quadrupling the number of plants, which is not the case.
  • e) 10 times: This would mean increasing the number of plants tenfold, which is not the case.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) 2 times. The Quincunx system accommodates twice as many plants as the square system of planting.

48. The operation of pulsing is done for:

a) To increase the shelf/vase life of flowers
b) To increase the shelf life of vegetables
c) To increase the shelf life of fruits
d) To increase the shelf life of plantation crops
e) To increase the shining of fruits

Answer: a) To increase the shelf/vase life of flowers

Explanation:

Pulsing:

  • Definition: Pulsing is a post-harvest treatment used to extend the shelf or vase life of cut flowers. It involves immersing the flowers in a solution of water and nutrients or preservatives for a short period.
  • Purpose:
    • Improve Water Uptake: Pulsing helps flowers take up water and nutrients more efficiently, which can delay wilting and maintain freshness.
    • Extend Shelf Life: This process helps to prolong the time flowers remain in optimal condition, both in floral arrangements and storage.

Other Options Explained:

  • b) To increase the shelf life of vegetables: Pulsing is not commonly used for vegetables; other methods like refrigeration or controlled atmosphere storage are more typical.
  • c) To increase the shelf life of fruits: While some treatments can be applied to fruits, pulsing specifically refers to the treatment of cut flowers.
  • d) To increase the shelf life of plantation crops: Pulsing does not apply to plantation crops.
  • e) To increase shining of fruits: This is not the purpose of pulsing; fruit polishing and coating are used for enhancing appearance.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is a) To increase the shelf/vase life of flowers. Pulsing is specifically done to extend the freshness and longevity of cut flowers.

49. The fungus which causes soft rot and leakage of juices from fruits such as tomato, sweet potato, etc. is:

a) Erwinia carotovora
b) Rhizopus spp.
c) E. chrysanthemii
d) E. areola
e) Plasmodophora viticola

Answer: b) Rhizopus spp.

Explanation:

Rhizopus spp.:

  • Definition: Rhizopus spp. are a type of mold that cause soft rot in various fruits and vegetables. They are known for their ability to rapidly decompose plant tissues, leading to soft rot and leakage of juices.
  • Symptoms: The infection typically results in the breakdown of fruit and vegetable tissues, causing them to become soft and mushy. This can also lead to leakage of internal juices.

Other Options Explained:

  • a) Erwinia carotovora: This bacterium causes soft rot in vegetables such as potatoes and carrots, but not typically in fruits like tomatoes.
  • c) E. chrysanthemii: This is a pathogen of chrysanthemums, not commonly associated with soft rot in fruits or sweet potatoes.
  • d) E. areola: This is not a recognized pathogen related to soft rot or fruit diseases.
  • e) Plasmodophora viticola: This is a pathogen that causes downy mildew in grapes, not soft rot in fruits.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is b) Rhizopus spp.. This fungus is known for causing soft rot and leakage of juices in fruits such as tomatoes and sweet potatoes.

50: It is a pest when it is a larva, feeding on crops as it grows in size till it pupates and remains dormant from August till end of May.

a) Red Hairy Caterpillar
b) Castor Semilooper
c) Tobacco Caterpillar
d) Bihar Hairy Caterpillar
e) Leaf Hopper

Answer: a) Red Hairy Caterpillar

Explanation:

  • Red Hairy Caterpillar (Spilosoma obliqua): This pest is known for its destructive larval stage, where it feeds on a variety of crops, causing significant damage. The caterpillar is characterized by its reddish color and hairy appearance. It goes through a larval stage where it feeds extensively and then pupates. The pupal stage is dormant, extending from August until late May. This long dormancy period helps it survive adverse conditions, making it a persistent pest in agricultural fields.
  • Castor Semilooper: This pest, also known as Achaea janata, primarily affects castor plants. It does not have the same dormancy period and behavior as the Red Hairy Caterpillar.
  • Tobacco Caterpillar: Known scientifically as Spodoptera litura, this caterpillar affects various crops but does not have the same dormancy characteristics.
  • Bihar Hairy Caterpillar: Similar to the Red Hairy Caterpillar in appearance, but its lifecycle and habits might differ.
  • Leaf Hopper: Not a caterpillar but a type of insect that feeds on plant sap rather than causing damage through larval feeding.

51: In a combine harvester, the ratio of reel peripheral speed to the forward speed should normally be in the range of:

a) 0.25-0.50
b) 1.25-1.50
c) 3.00-3.50
d) 4.50-5.30
e) 5.55-8.75

Answer: b) 1.25-1.50

Explanation:

  • Reel Peripheral Speed to Forward Speed Ratio: This ratio is crucial for the efficient operation of a combine harvester. The reel (a rotating drum that helps feed the crop into the harvesting mechanism) must turn at a speed that is slightly faster than the forward speed of the harvester to ensure effective crop handling and minimize crop loss.
    • 0.25-0.50: This ratio is too low for effective crop handling.
    • 1.25-1.50: This is the optimal range for ensuring that the reel speed is sufficient to move the crop into the harvester while avoiding excessive crop loss.
    • 3.00-3.50, 4.50-5.30, 5.55-8.75: These ratios are too high and could cause excessive damage to the crop or overwork the harvester.

52: The disease is most severe during cool weather when heavy dews are present. The infection of virus due to which plant leaves are converted to pale yellow. Name the disease?

a) Necrosis
b) Mottling
c) Ring Spot
d) Blight
e) Wilt

Answer: c) Ring Spot

Explanation:

  • Ring Spot Disease: This viral disease causes distinctive ring-like spots on the leaves of infected plants. It is more severe during cool weather with heavy dew conditions, which promote the spread of the virus. The infection leads to the yellowing of leaves, which is a characteristic symptom of ring spot diseases.
    • Necrosis: Refers to the death of plant tissue and can be caused by various factors, not specifically linked to the described symptoms.
    • Mottling: Results in irregular patterns of light and dark areas on leaves but does not specifically describe the ring-like spots or the condition of the weather.
    • Blight: Typically causes rapid and extensive damage to plant tissues, often characterized by dark, sunken lesions.
    • Wilt: Causes the plant to lose turgor pressure and droop, not specifically associated with ring-like yellowing.

53: Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect statement regarding sexual reproduction:

a) Propagated through seeds
b) Pollen gets transferred to the stigma; the male gametes from pollen grains release and fuse with the egg
c) Pollen contains the male gametes
d) It helps in evolution of species
e) All are correct or None is incorrect

Answer: e) All are correct or None is incorrect

Explanation:

  • Sexual Reproduction Statements:
    • a) Propagated through seeds: Sexual reproduction involves the formation of seeds through the fusion of male and female gametes.
    • b) Pollen gets transferred to the stigma; the male gametes from pollen grains release and fuse with the egg: This describes the process of fertilization where pollen (carrying male gametes) fertilizes the ovule (female gamete).
    • c) Pollen contains the male gametes: Pollen grains carry the male gametes needed for fertilization.
    • d) It helps in evolution of species: Sexual reproduction introduces genetic variation, which contributes to the evolution of species.

Since all the statements accurately describe aspects of sexual reproduction, the option e) All are correct or None is incorrect is correct.

54: Power generated in the engine cylinder and received by the piston without frictional losses is known as:

a) IHP
b) BHP
c) FHP
d) PTO
e) None

Answer: a) IHP

Explanation:

  • IHP (Indicated Horsepower): This is the power produced within the engine cylinder before accounting for any mechanical losses due to friction. It represents the theoretical maximum power that the engine can produce based on the pressure and volume of the combustion process.
    • BHP (Brake Horsepower): This is the power output of an engine measured at the crankshaft or flywheel after accounting for losses due to friction and other factors within the engine.
    • FHP (Frictional Horsepower): This is the power lost due to friction within the engine components.
    • PTO (Power Take-Off): This is the power taken from the engine to drive external equipment.

55:  Specialized system which is produced from the leaf axil at the crown of the plant and grows horizontally is known as:

a) Sucker
b) Tuber
c) Runner
d) Offset
e) Rhizome

Answer: c) Runner

Explanation:

  • Runner: This is a specialized stem that grows horizontally along the surface of the soil and is produced from the leaf axil. It is used by plants to propagate and produce new plants at nodes along the runner.
    • Sucker: This is a shoot that arises from the base of the plant or from the roots, usually to help in vegetative propagation.
    • Tuber: This is an underground storage organ that stores nutrients and can also produce new plants.
    • Offset: This is a short, lateral shoot that produces new plants, commonly found in plants like bromeliads.
    • Rhizome: This is an underground stem that grows horizontally and can produce new shoots and roots.

56: It consists of a series of hinged or fixed hammers attached to a shaft which rotates at high speed; peripheral speeds up to 100 m/s are possible. Such devices are used primarily for hard and brittle materials such as pepper, sugar, dried milk, dried vegetables, and spices. The device is:

a) Hammer type
b) Tooth spike
c) Drum type thresher
d) Syndicate type thresher
e) None

Answer: a) Hammer type

Explanation:

  • Hammer Type: This refers to a type of mill or grinder where a series of hammers attached to a rotating shaft impact and break down hard and brittle materials. The high-speed rotation allows the device to effectively process materials such as spices, grains, and dried products.
    • Tooth Spike: This is not commonly associated with high-speed milling of hard materials.
    • Drum Type Thresher: This is used for threshing grains, not for processing hard materials.
    • Syndicate Type Thresher: This is another type of thresher, primarily for grains.
    • None: The correct answer is not “None” as a hammer-type device fits the description.

57: The sum of lignin and polysaccharides that are not digested by endogenous secretion of the digestive tract is:

a) Lipid
b) Polysaccharides
c) Starch
d) Crude Fibres
e) Amides

Answer: d) Crude Fibres

Explanation:

  • Crude Fibres: These are components of plant material that include lignin and polysaccharides which are not digestible by the digestive enzymes in animals. Crude fiber is a measure of the fibrous parts of plant material, which includes both lignin and some polysaccharides.
    • Lipid: Fats and oils, which are not related to the fibrous content.
    • Polysaccharides: These are carbohydrates like starch and cellulose, but they include both digestible and indigestible types.
    • Starch: A type of polysaccharide that is digestible.
    • Amides: Organic compounds containing the functional group -CONH₂, unrelated to plant fiber content.

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2021-22 Previous Year Paper

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2021-22 Previous Year Paper
IBPS SO AFO Mains 2021-22 Previous Year Paper

1: Keeping in view the interest of sugarcane farmers, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane (Rs/quintal) for the sugar season 2021-22 as:

Options:

a) 210
b) 280
c) 250
d) 320
e) 290

Answer: e) 290

Explanation:

  • FRP (Fair and Remunerative Price): The FRP is a price determined by the government that sugar mills must pay to sugarcane farmers. It is meant to ensure that farmers receive a fair price for their crop, reflecting the cost of production and providing a reasonable return. For the 2021-22 season, the FRP was set at Rs 290 per quintal.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) 210: This would be significantly lower than the actual FRP. It might reflect an earlier price but not the approved rate for the season in question.
  • b) 280: Close to the actual FRP but slightly lower. It might reflect historical rates or initial proposals.
  • c) 250: Lower than the approved FRP, representing past figures or lower price proposals.
  • d) 320: Higher than the actual FRP, possibly an exaggerated estimate or proposal.
  • e) 290: The correct and approved FRP for the season.

2: Akoichi disease in rice is due to toxicity of:

Options:

a) Zn₂S
b) Fe₂S
c) H₂S
d) FeS₂
e) CaO

Answer: c) H₂S

Explanation:

  • Akoichi Disease: This disease in rice is associated with hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) toxicity. H₂S is a gas that can accumulate in waterlogged or poorly drained soils, causing damage to rice plants by affecting their respiration and nutrient uptake.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Zn₂S: Zinc sulfide is not related to rice diseases. It is a mineral and not typically associated with plant toxicity.
  • b) Fe₂S: Iron sulfide is a compound that forms in soil but does not typically cause the Akoichi disease.
  • c) H₂S: Hydrogen sulfide is directly linked to Akoichi disease due to its toxic effects on rice plants.
  • d) FeS₂: Iron pyrite is related to soil chemistry but not specifically to Akoichi disease.
  • e) CaO: Calcium oxide is used to amend soil acidity but is not related to Akoichi disease.

3:Amrapali is a cross of:

Options:

a) Dashehari * Neelam
b) Sindhu * Ratna
c) Ratna * Neelam
d) Alphonso * Neelam
e) None of the above

Answer: a) Dashehari * Neelam

Explanation:

  • Amrapali Mango: This mango variety is a hybrid developed by crossing Dashehari and Neelam mangoes. It combines the sweetness and aroma of Dashehari with the size and quality of Neelam.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Dashehari * Neelam: The correct cross to produce Amrapali, combining characteristics of both parent varieties.
  • b) Sindhu * Ratna: This cross is not related to the Amrapali variety.
  • c) Ratna * Neelam: Not the correct parentage for Amrapali.
  • d) Alphonso * Neelam: Not the hybrid used to create Amrapali.
  • e) None of the above: Incorrect as the correct hybrid is Dashehari * Neelam.

4: Pusa Nanha Variety of papaya is developed by:

Options:

a) Mutation
b) Hybridization
c) Conventional Breeding
d) Tissue Culture
e) None of the above

Answer: a) Mutation

Explanation:

  • Pusa Nanha Papaya: This variety was developed using mutation breeding, where genetic mutations are induced to create new traits. It is a dwarf variety with desirable characteristics.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Mutation: Correct method used for developing Pusa Nanha, creating desirable traits through induced genetic changes.
  • b) Hybridization: Involves crossing different varieties but is not the method used for Pusa Nanha.
  • c) Conventional Breeding: Involves traditional methods of breeding but not specifically for Pusa Nanha.
  • d) Tissue Culture: A technique for developing plants but not the method for Pusa Nanha.
  • e) None of the above: Incorrect, as the correct method is mutation.

5: Muga silkworm is reared on which of the following tree species?

Options:

a) Terminalia arjuna
b) Ricinus communis
c) Mulberry
d) Bombyx mori
e) Som and Soalu

Answer: e) Som and Soalu

Explanation:

  • Muga Silkworm: The Muga silkworm (Antheraea assama) is reared on specific trees such as Som (Persea bombycina) and Soalu (Litsaea polyantha). These trees provide the necessary leaves for the silkworms.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Terminalia arjuna: A tree used in various applications but not for Muga silkworm.
  • b) Ricinus communis: Known as castor oil plant, not used for Muga silkworm.
  • c) Mulberry: Used for rearing the Bombyx mori silkworm, not Muga.
  • d) Bombyx mori: The silkworm species that feeds on mulberry leaves.
  • e) Som and Soalu: Correct, as these are the trees used for Muga silkworm rearing.

6: Major Characteristic symptom of stem borer in rice:

Options:

a) Chaffy Grains
b) Dead Heart
c) Silvery Shoot
d) Hopper Burn
e) White Patchy

Answer: b) Dead Heart

Explanation:

  • Stem Borer in Rice: The stem borer causes damage primarily by boring into the stem of the rice plant. This damage leads to the characteristic symptom known as “Dead Heart,” where the central part of the plant (the growing point) dies, leading to a failure in normal growth and development.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Chaffy Grains: This is more related to issues like nutrient deficiency or other pests but not specifically to stem borer damage.
  • b) Dead Heart: Correct symptom. The stem borer larvae feed inside the stem, causing the central portion to die and result in a “dead heart” where the plant fails to produce viable grain.
  • c) Silvery Shoot: This is associated with the damage caused by leafhoppers or whiteflies, not stem borers.
  • d) Hopper Burn: This is a symptom of damage caused by hoppers, such as leafhoppers, not stem borers.
  • e) White Patchy: This is related to other types of fungal or bacterial infections, not stem borers.

7: Which instrument is used to determine the adulteration of water content in milk?

Options:

a) Hydrometer
b) Lactometer
c) Lactoscope
d) Hygrometer
e) Anemometer

Answer: b) Lactometer

Explanation:

  • Lactometer: This instrument measures the density of milk, which helps determine the concentration of milk solids and detect water adulteration. A higher density indicates a higher concentration of milk solids, while a lower density suggests dilution with water.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Hydrometer: Measures the specific gravity or density of liquids, but not specifically for milk’s water content. It can be used for general liquid density measurements.
  • b) Lactometer: Correct. Specifically designed to measure the density of milk and detect water adulteration.
  • c) Lactoscope: Used to measure the quality of milk based on its light absorption properties, not specifically for water content.
  • d) Hygrometer: Measures humidity in the air, not relevant to milk water content.
  • e) Anemometer: Measures wind speed, not applicable to milk analysis.

8: Pasteurization is done in milk:

Options:

  1. To retain color and flavor of milk
  2. To enhance acidity
  3. To reduce adulteration in milk
  4. To reduce fat globules in the milk
  5. To kill pathogenic bacteria

Answer: 5. To kill pathogenic bacteria

Explanation:

  • Pasteurization: This process involves heating milk to a specific temperature for a set period of time to kill harmful bacteria without significantly affecting the milk’s nutritional value and flavor. It is primarily done to ensure the safety of milk by eliminating pathogens.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. To retain color and flavor of milk: Pasteurization might help preserve some aspects of milk’s quality, but its primary purpose is to kill pathogens, not to retain color or flavor.
  • 2. To enhance acidity: Pasteurization does not enhance acidity; it aims to kill bacteria.
  • 3. To reduce adulteration in milk: Adulteration detection is not the purpose of pasteurization. It is focused on killing bacteria.
  • 4. To reduce fat globules in the milk: Pasteurization does not affect fat globule size; this is usually achieved through homogenization.
  • 5. To kill pathogenic bacteria: Correct. The main goal of pasteurization is to kill harmful bacteria.

9: As per the First Revised Estimates released on 29th January 2021, according to National Statistical Office Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation, livestock contribution in GVA in 2019-20 is:

Options:

  1. 4.6%
  2. 4.8%
  3. 5.0%
  4. 4.4%
  5. 5.2%

Answer: 5.2%

Explanation:

  • GVA (Gross Value Added) Contribution: Livestock contributes a significant portion to the agricultural sector’s GVA. For 2019-20, the contribution was recorded as 5.2%, reflecting the economic importance of the livestock sector in India.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 4.6%: Slightly lower than the recorded contribution.
  • 2. 4.8%: Closer but still not the exact figure.
  • 3. 5.0%: A reasonable estimate but not the actual figure.
  • 4. 4.4%: Lower than the actual contribution.
  • 5. 5.2%: The correct figure reflecting the contribution of livestock to the GVA.

10: Which of the following methods is not related to direct gene transfer?

Options:

  1. DNA Transmission
  2. Particle Bombardment
  3. Micro Injection
  4. Electroporation
  5. Tissue Culture

Answer: 5. Tissue Culture

Explanation:

  • Direct Gene Transfer Methods: Methods such as particle bombardment, microinjection, and electroporation are techniques used for directly introducing genes into cells. Tissue culture, on the other hand, is a technique used for growing plant cells and tissues but does not directly involve gene transfer.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. DNA Transmission: This refers to direct methods of gene transfer, such as DNA microinjection or electroporation.
  • 2. Particle Bombardment: Also known as the gene gun method, it directly delivers DNA into cells.
  • 3. Micro Injection: Involves injecting DNA directly into cells using a fine needle.
  • 4. Electroporation: Uses electrical pulses to introduce DNA into cells.
  • 5. Tissue Culture: Not a direct gene transfer method but a method for growing and maintaining plant tissues and cells.

6: Major Characteristic symptom of stem borer in rice:

Options:

a) Chaffy Grains
b) Dead Heart
c) Silvery Shoot
d) Hopper Burn
e) White Patchy

Answer: b) Dead Heart

Explanation:

  • Stem Borer in Rice: The stem borer causes damage primarily by boring into the stem of the rice plant. This damage leads to the characteristic symptom known as “Dead Heart,” where the central part of the plant (the growing point) dies, leading to a failure in normal growth and development.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Chaffy Grains: This is more related to issues like nutrient deficiency or other pests but not specifically to stem borer damage.
  • b) Dead Heart: Correct symptom. The stem borer larvae feed inside the stem, causing the central portion to die and result in a “dead heart” where the plant fails to produce viable grain.
  • c) Silvery Shoot: This is associated with the damage caused by leafhoppers or whiteflies, not stem borers.
  • d) Hopper Burn: This is a symptom of damage caused by hoppers, such as leafhoppers, not stem borers.
  • e) White Patchy: This is related to other types of fungal or bacterial infections, not stem borers.

7: Which instrument is used to determine the adulteration of water content in milk?

Options:

a) Hydrometer
b) Lactometer
c) Lactoscope
d) Hygrometer
e) Anemometer

Answer: b) Lactometer

Explanation:

  • Lactometer: This instrument measures the density of milk, which helps determine the concentration of milk solids and detect water adulteration. A higher density indicates a higher concentration of milk solids, while a lower density suggests dilution with water.

Details for Each Option:

  • a) Hydrometer: Measures the specific gravity or density of liquids, but not specifically for milk’s water content. It can be used for general liquid density measurements.
  • b) Lactometer: Correct. Specifically designed to measure the density of milk and detect water adulteration.
  • c) Lactoscope: Used to measure the quality of milk based on its light absorption properties, not specifically for water content.
  • d) Hygrometer: Measures humidity in the air, not relevant to milk water content.
  • e) Anemometer: Measures wind speed, not applicable to milk analysis.

8: Pasteurization is done in milk:

Options:

  1. To retain color and flavor of milk
  2. To enhance acidity
  3. To reduce adulteration in milk
  4. To reduce fat globules in the milk
  5. To kill pathogenic bacteria

Answer: 5. To kill pathogenic bacteria

Explanation:

  • Pasteurization: This process involves heating milk to a specific temperature for a set period of time to kill harmful bacteria without significantly affecting the milk’s nutritional value and flavor. It is primarily done to ensure the safety of milk by eliminating pathogens.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. To retain color and flavor of milk: Pasteurization might help preserve some aspects of milk’s quality, but its primary purpose is to kill pathogens, not to retain color or flavor.
  • 2. To enhance acidity: Pasteurization does not enhance acidity; it aims to kill bacteria.
  • 3. To reduce adulteration in milk: Adulteration detection is not the purpose of pasteurization. It is focused on killing bacteria.
  • 4. To reduce fat globules in the milk: Pasteurization does not affect fat globule size; this is usually achieved through homogenization.
  • 5. To kill pathogenic bacteria: Correct. The main goal of pasteurization is to kill harmful bacteria.

9: As per the First Revised Estimates released on 29th January 2021, according to National Statistical Office Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation, livestock contribution in GVA in 2019-20 is:

Options:

  1. 4.6%
  2. 4.8%
  3. 5.0%
  4. 4.4%
  5. 5.2%

Answer: 5.2%

Explanation:

  • GVA (Gross Value Added) Contribution: Livestock contributes a significant portion to the agricultural sector’s GVA. For 2019-20, the contribution was recorded as 5.2%, reflecting the economic importance of the livestock sector in India.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 4.6%: Slightly lower than the recorded contribution.
  • 2. 4.8%: Closer but still not the exact figure.
  • 3. 5.0%: A reasonable estimate but not the actual figure.
  • 4. 4.4%: Lower than the actual contribution.
  • 5. 5.2%: The correct figure reflecting the contribution of livestock to the GVA.

10: Which of the following methods is not related to direct gene transfer?

Options:

  1. DNA Transmission
  2. Particle Bombardment
  3. Micro Injection
  4. Electroporation
  5. Tissue Culture

Answer: 5. Tissue Culture

Explanation:

  • Direct Gene Transfer Methods: Methods such as particle bombardment, microinjection, and electroporation are techniques used for directly introducing genes into cells. Tissue culture, on the other hand, is a technique used for growing plant cells and tissues but does not directly involve gene transfer.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. DNA Transmission: This refers to direct methods of gene transfer, such as DNA microinjection or electroporation.
  • 2. Particle Bombardment: Also known as the gene gun method, it directly delivers DNA into cells.
  • 3. Micro Injection: Involves injecting DNA directly into cells using a fine needle.
  • 4. Electroporation: Uses electrical pulses to introduce DNA into cells.
  • 5. Tissue Culture: Not a direct gene transfer method but a method for growing and maintaining plant tissues and cells.

11: By which of the following tests can milk pasteurization be determined?

Options:

  1. Alcoholic test
  2. Clot on boiling test
  3. Methylene blue reduction test
  4. Alkaline phosphatase test
  5. None of the above

Answer: 4. Alkaline phosphatase test

Explanation:

  • Alkaline Phosphatase Test: This test is used to determine whether pasteurization has been properly done. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme present in raw milk but is inactivated by proper pasteurization. If the enzyme is detected in the milk, it indicates that pasteurization was incomplete or not done correctly.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Alcoholic Test: Used to check milk’s stability and presence of any added water, not specifically for pasteurization.
  • 2. Clot on Boiling Test: Detects the presence of microbial contamination and milk quality but does not specifically indicate pasteurization status.
  • 3. Methylene Blue Reduction Test: Measures the microbial load in milk and its quality but does not directly indicate if pasteurization has occurred.
  • 4. Alkaline Phosphatase Test: Correct. Indicates whether pasteurization has been properly done by checking the presence of the enzyme.
  • 5. None of the Above: Incorrect, as the alkaline phosphatase test is relevant.

12: Coorg is a commercial variety of which plantation crop?

Options:

  1. Coffee
  2. Rubber
  3. Tea
  4. Cashew
  5. Cocoa

Answer: 1. Coffee

Explanation:

  • Coorg Coffee: Coorg is known for its coffee plantations, and the “Coorg” variety refers to the coffee produced in that region of Karnataka, India. This area is renowned for its coffee cultivation.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Coffee: Correct. Coorg is famous for its coffee production.
  • 2. Rubber: Coorg is not known for rubber plantations.
  • 3. Tea: Tea is grown in different regions, but not specifically associated with Coorg.
  • 4. Cashew: Cashew is cultivated in various parts of India but not specifically in Coorg.
  • 5. Cocoa: Cocoa is grown in different tropical regions but not specifically associated with Coorg.

13: Oil content (%) present in groundnut:

Options:

  1. 15-22
  2. 35-40
  3. 44-52
  4. 22-24
  5. 18-20

Answer: 3. 44-52

Explanation:

  • Groundnut Oil Content: Groundnuts, also known as peanuts, have a high oil content, typically ranging from 44% to 52%. This high oil content makes them a significant source of vegetable oil.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 15-22: Too low for groundnuts.
  • 2. 35-40: Slightly lower than the actual content range.
  • 3. 44-52: Correct. This is the typical range for oil content in groundnuts.
  • 4. 22-24: Too low for groundnuts.
  • 5. 18-20: Also too low for the actual oil content in groundnuts.

14: Draught purpose breed of cattle is:

Options:

  1. Tharparkar
  2. Gir
  3. Red Sindhi
  4. Sahiwal
  5. Krishna Valley

Answer: 5. Krishna Valley

Explanation:

  • Krishna Valley Cattle: This breed is known for its draught capabilities and is used for work purposes in agriculture. It is well-suited for heavy work due to its strength and endurance.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Tharparkar: Known for both milk and draught purposes but not as specialized for draught as Krishna Valley.
  • 2. Gir: Primarily a dairy breed, though it can also be used for draught purposes.
  • 3. Red Sindhi: Known for milk production, with some use for draught, but not a primary draught breed.
  • 4. Sahiwal: Primarily a dairy breed with some draught capabilities.
  • 5. Krishna Valley: Correct. Known for its draught capabilities and strength.

15: Dual purpose breed of goat is:

Options:

  1. Beetul
  2. Black Bengal
  3. Marwari
  4. Jamunapari
  5. All of these

Answer: 1. Beetul

Explanation:

  • Beetul Goat: This breed is considered dual-purpose, meaning it is used for both milk and meat production. It has good quality milk and meat characteristics.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Beetul: Correct. A dual-purpose breed, used for both milk and meat.
  • 2. Black Bengal: Known primarily for meat, though it does provide some milk.
  • 3. Marwari: Generally a meat breed with some dairy characteristics.
  • 4. Jamunapari: Primarily a milk breed with good size and some meat qualities but not typically classified as dual-purpose.
  • 5. All of these: Incorrect, as not all the mentioned breeds are primarily dual-purpose.

16: Curled toe disease in poultry is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?

Options:

  1. Vitamin B1
  2. Vitamin B2
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin B12
  5. Vitamin E

Answer: 2. Vitamin B2

Explanation:

  • Vitamin B2 Deficiency: Curled toe paralysis in poultry is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin). This vitamin is essential for proper nerve function and growth, and its deficiency leads to characteristic curled toes and other health issues.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Vitamin B1: Deficiency leads to other disorders, not specifically curled toe disease.
  • 2. Vitamin B2: Correct. Deficiency causes curled toe disease.
  • 3. Vitamin D: Deficiency affects bone health and can cause rickets but not curled toe disease.
  • 4. Vitamin B12: Deficiency leads to other health issues but not specifically curled toe disease.
  • 5. Vitamin E: Deficiency can cause other problems, such as muscle degeneration, but not curled toe disease.

17: “Queen of milk” breed among the following goat breeds.

Options:

  1. Mewat
  2. Bhadawari
  3. Jamunapari
  4. Saanen
  5. Barberi

Answer: 4. Saanen

Explanation:

  • Saanen: Known as the “Queen of Milk,” Saanen goats are renowned for their high milk production. They are one of the most prolific dairy goat breeds and are highly prized for their substantial milk yield.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Mewat: Primarily used for meat and milk but not as prolific in milk production as Saanen.
  • 2. Bhadawari: Known for meat and some milk production but not particularly high in milk yield.
  • 3. Jamunapari: Good milk breed but not as high yielding as Saanen.
  • 4. Saanen: Correct. Noted for high milk production, hence called the “Queen of Milk.”
  • 5. Barberi: Primarily a meat breed with moderate milk production.

18: Adiabatic dehumidification will lead ……………………….. in humidity and ……………. in temperature.

Options:

  1. Increase, Decrease
  2. Increase, Increase
  3. Decrease, Increase
  4. Decrease, Decrease
  5. None of the above

Answer: 3. Decrease, Increase

Explanation:

  • Adiabatic Dehumidification: This process reduces the humidity of the air by cooling it, which causes moisture to condense and be removed. As a result, the humidity decreases and the temperature of the remaining air increases due to the removal of moisture and the energy required for the process.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Increase, Decrease: Incorrect. Adiabatic dehumidification decreases humidity and typically causes an increase in temperature.
  • 2. Increase, Increase: Incorrect. Humidity decreases, and temperature generally increases.
  • 3. Decrease, Increase: Correct. Humidity decreases while the temperature increases.
  • 4. Decrease, Decrease: Incorrect. Temperature typically increases, not decreases.
  • 5. None of the above: Incorrect, as option 3 is accurate.

19: Fishes able to tolerate different concentrations of salinity are known as

Options:

  1. Euryhaline
  2. Oligohaline
  3. Stenohaline
  4. Estuarine
  5. None of the above

Answer: 1. Euryhaline

Explanation:

  • Euryhaline: These fishes can tolerate a wide range of salinities, from freshwater to saltwater, adapting to various aquatic environments.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Euryhaline: Correct. Tolerates a broad range of salinity.
  • 2. Oligohaline: Tolerates only low salinity environments.
  • 3. Stenohaline: Can tolerate only a narrow range of salinity.
  • 4. Estuarine: Refers to species living in estuarine environments, but not specifically about salinity tolerance.
  • 5. None of the above: Incorrect, as option 1 is accurate.

20: Indicator plant for boron deficiency in soils.

Options:

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Sunflower
  4. Mustard
  5. Safflower

Answer: 3. Sunflower

Explanation:

  • Sunflower: Sunflower is a commonly used indicator plant for boron deficiency. It shows clear symptoms of boron deficiency, such as necrotic spots and poor growth.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Wheat: Not a primary indicator for boron deficiency.
  • 2. Rice: Shows some symptoms of boron deficiency but not as prominently as sunflower.
  • 3. Sunflower: Correct. Known for its sensitivity to boron deficiency.
  • 4. Mustard: Also affected by boron deficiency but not the primary indicator.
  • 5. Safflower: Shows some signs but not the most prominent indicator.

21: Which of the following ameliorates cost-effectively and is easily available for the reclamation of sodic soil?

Options:

  1. Gypsum
  2. Ammonium sulfate
  3. Lime
  4. Iron pyrite
  5. Ammonium nitrate

Answer: 1. Gypsum

Explanation:

  • Gypsum: Used for the reclamation of sodic soils, gypsum helps to improve soil structure by displacing sodium ions and improving soil permeability. It is cost-effective and widely available.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Gypsum: Correct. Effective and cost-effective for reclaiming sodic soils.
  • 2. Ammonium sulfate: Used as a fertilizer, not specifically for soil reclamation.
  • 3. Lime: Used for acidic soils, not sodic soils.
  • 4. Iron pyrite: Used for acidic soils, not specifically for sodic soil reclamation.
  • 5. Ammonium nitrate: A fertilizer, not used for soil reclamation.

22: Rock phosphate is used in which soil?

Options:

  1. Saline soil
  2. Sodic soil
  3. Acidic soil
  4. Alkali soil
  5. Neutral soil

Answer: 3. Acidic soil

Explanation:

  • Rock Phosphate: Rock phosphate is used to improve phosphorus availability in acidic soils. It reacts with soil acids to make phosphorus more available to plants.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Saline Soil: Rock phosphate is not typically used for saline soil.
  • 2. Sodic Soil: Sodic soils are treated with gypsum, not rock phosphate.
  • 3. Acidic Soil: Correct. Used to increase phosphorus in acidic soils.
  • 4. Alkali Soil: Treated with gypsum or lime, not rock phosphate.
  • 5. Neutral Soil: While rock phosphate can be used in various soil types, it is particularly beneficial for acidic soils.

23: Which of the following is a silk cotton tree?

Options:

  1. Sal
  2. Deodar
  3. Silver Oak
  4. Eucalyptus
  5. Kapok

Answer: 5. Kapok

Explanation:

  • Kapok (Ceiba pentandra): Also known as the silk cotton tree, it produces a fibrous material used in stuffing pillows and mattresses. Its large pods contain cotton-like fibers.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Sal: A hardwood tree, not related to silk cotton.
  • 2. Deodar: A type of cedar tree, not related to silk cotton.
  • 3. Silver Oak: A timber tree known for its wood, not silk cotton.
  • 4. Eucalyptus: A fast-growing tree with aromatic leaves, not silk cotton.
  • 5. Kapok: Correct. Known for its fibrous silk cotton used in various applications.

24: Which fish can be easily grown in brackish water with a quick growth rate and can tolerate fluctuations in temperature?

Options:

  1. White Prawn
  2. Sardines
  3. Tiger Shrimp
  4. Lobster
  5. Milk Fish

Answer: 3. Tiger Shrimp

Explanation:

  • Tiger Shrimp (Penaeus monodon): Commonly farmed in brackish water due to its rapid growth rate and ability to tolerate temperature fluctuations. It is a major aquaculture species.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. White Prawn: Can be grown in brackish water but may not have the same growth rate and tolerance as tiger shrimp.
  • 2. Sardines: Typically found in marine environments rather than brackish water.
  • 3. Tiger Shrimp: Correct. Adaptable to brackish water with rapid growth.
  • 4. Lobster: Generally found in marine environments and may not be as adaptable to brackish water.
  • 5. Milk Fish: Typically found in brackish water but not as quick-growing as tiger shrimp.

25: Curing temperature of potato is ……….℃

Options:

  1. 33
  2. 37.8
  3. 25
  4. 35
  5. 20

Answer: 5. 20

Explanation:

  • 20°C: Potatoes are cured at this temperature to allow wounds to heal and to help the skin toughen, improving storage quality.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 33°C: Higher than required for curing and may lead to sprouting or spoilage.
  • 2. 37.8°C: Too high for curing; could damage the tubers.
  • 3. 25°C: A bit high for curing; optimal temperature is around 20°C.
  • 4. 35°C: Too high for curing, leading to potential quality issues.
  • 5. 20°C: Correct. Optimal temperature for curing potatoes.

26: Cricketball and Kalli Patti varieties of which crop?

Options:

  1. Sapota
  2. Citrus
  3. Papaya
  4. Apple
  5. Plum

Answer: 1. Sapota

Explanation:

  • Sapota (Chikoo): Cricketball and Kalli Patti are varieties of sapota, known for their sweet, grainy texture.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Sapota: Correct. These are varieties of sapota known for their distinct characteristics.
  • 2. Citrus: Includes fruits like oranges and lemons, not sapota varieties.
  • 3. Papaya: Known for varieties like Solo and Red Lady, not Cricketball or Kalli Patti.
  • 4. Apple: Includes varieties like Fuji and Gala, not sapota.
  • 5. Plum: Includes varieties like Santa Rosa and Satsuma, not sapota.

27: To prevent erosion in hills

Options:

  1. Bench Terracing
  2. Contour Bunding
  3. Terrace Farming
  4. Zing Terracing
  5. Graded Bunding

Answer: 2. Contour Bunding

Explanation:

  • Contour Bunding: This method involves creating bunds (barriers) along the contour lines of hills to slow down water flow and prevent soil erosion.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Bench Terracing: Involves creating level steps on a slope, which can help with erosion control but is more complex.
  • 2. Contour Bunding: Correct. Effective for preventing erosion by managing water runoff along slopes.
  • 3. Terrace Farming: Involves creating terraces to farm on slopes, reducing erosion but more focused on agriculture.
  • 4. Zing Terracing: Not a standard term in erosion control.
  • 5. Graded Bunding: Refers to bunds with a graded slope, which may not be as effective as contour bunding for erosion control.

28: Which machinery can be used for all purposes like sowing, field preparation, weeding, etc.?

Options:

  1. Disc Plough
  2. Disc Harrow
  3. Rotavator
  4. Cultivator
  5. Land Leveller

Answer: 3. Rotavator

Explanation:

  • Rotavator: A versatile piece of machinery that can be used for multiple purposes including soil preparation, tilling, and weeding. It combines various functions into a single operation, making it suitable for different stages of field preparation and crop management.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Disc Plough: Primarily used for ploughing and breaking up the soil, not for sowing or weeding.
  • 2. Disc Harrow: Used for breaking up and smoothing soil but not for sowing or comprehensive field preparation.
  • 3. Rotavator: Correct. Can perform soil preparation, tilling, and weeding.
  • 4. Cultivator: Mainly used for cultivating and weeding but not as versatile as a rotavator.
  • 5. Land Leveller: Used for leveling land, not for sowing or weeding.

29: To reduce fertilizer use, the government has decreased urea bag size from 50 kg to __ kg.

Options:

  1. 45
  2. 42
  3. 38
  4. 25
  5. 35

Answer: 1. 45

Explanation:

  • 45 kg: The reduction in urea bag size from 50 kg to 45 kg is a measure to promote efficient use of fertilizers and reduce wastage. Smaller bag sizes can help in better distribution and management of fertilizers.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 45 kg: Correct. The new standard size for urea bags.
  • 2. 42 kg: Not the reduced size; the correct size is 45 kg.
  • 3. 38 kg: Incorrect; the bag size is not this small.
  • 4. 25 kg: Too small compared to the new standard.
  • 5. 35 kg: Incorrect; the correct size is 45 kg.

30: It is the practice of forestry in areas devoid of tree growth and other vegetation situated in places away from the conventional forest areas with the object of increasing the area under tree growth.

Options:

  1. Social Forestry
  2. Recreational Forestry
  3. Farm Forestry
  4. Mixed Forestry
  5. Extension Forestry

Answer: 5. Extension Forestry

Explanation:

  • Extension Forestry: This practice involves increasing tree cover in non-traditional areas or places lacking vegetation, aiming to extend forested areas beyond conventional forest zones. It helps in improving the environment and increasing forest cover.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Social Forestry: Focuses on involving local communities in forest management and development but not specifically for areas devoid of tree growth.
  • 2. Recreational Forestry: Involves managing forests for recreational purposes.
  • 3. Farm Forestry: Involves integrating trees into agricultural landscapes.
  • 4. Mixed Forestry: Combines different types of forestry practices but not specifically focused on extending tree growth into non-forest areas.
  • 5. Extension Forestry: Correct. Focuses on extending tree growth into new areas.

31: The process of turning immature fruits into desirable color and flavor, edible, palatable with ethylene treatment is termed as:

Options:

  1. Degreening
  2. Ripening
  3. Yellowing
  4. Maturity
  5. All of These

Answer: 2. Ripening

Explanation:

  • Ripening: The process of ethylene treatment accelerates the ripening of fruits, leading to the development of color, flavor, and palatability. Ethylene is a natural plant hormone that regulates fruit ripening.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Degreening: Specific to citrus fruits, involves removing green color but not the overall ripening process.
  • 2. Ripening: Correct. Ethylene treatment is used to accelerate the ripening process.
  • 3. Yellowing: Refers to the color change but not the complete ripening process.
  • 4. Maturity: Refers to the developmental stage of fruits but not specifically related to ethylene treatment.
  • 5. All of These: Incorrect. Only ripening is specifically related to ethylene treatment.

32: The movement of a plant towards sunlight is known as:

Options:

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Photorespiration
  3. Phototropism
  4. Photoperiodism
  5. Photophosphorylation

Answer: 3. Phototropism

Explanation:

  • Phototropism: The growth movement of plants toward or away from light. It is a growth response to light direction, enabling plants to maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Photosynthesis: The process by which plants convert light into energy but not a movement response.
  • 2. Photorespiration: A process in plants that reduces photosynthesis efficiency but not related to light movement.
  • 3. Phototropism: Correct. Refers to plant movement towards light.
  • 4. Photoperiodism: Involves the plant’s response to the length of day and night, not specifically light movement.
  • 5. Photophosphorylation: A part of the photosynthesis process but not related to movement.

33: Golden rice is rich in:

Options:

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Vitamin E
  4. Vitamin B
  5. Vitamin C

Answer: 1. Vitamin A

Explanation:

  • Vitamin A: Golden rice is genetically engineered to produce beta-carotene, which the body converts into vitamin A. This is intended to help combat vitamin A deficiency in developing countries.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Vitamin A: Correct. Golden rice is enriched with beta-carotene, which provides vitamin A.
  • 2. Vitamin D: Not present in significant amounts in golden rice.
  • 3. Vitamin E: Not specifically enhanced in golden rice.
  • 4. Vitamin B: Contains some B vitamins but is specifically known for vitamin A.
  • 5. Vitamin C: Not a significant component of golden rice.

34: Which nutrient is used in the treatment of root rot of crops?

Options:

  1. Potassium
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Phosphorus
  4. Calcium
  5. Magnesium

Answer: 4. Calcium

Explanation:

  • Calcium: Essential in treating root rot, as it helps in strengthening cell walls and reducing the incidence of rot by improving soil structure and plant health.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Potassium: Enhances overall plant health and resistance but not specifically for root rot.
  • 2. Nitrogen: Promotes plant growth but not effective against root rot.
  • 3. Phosphorus: Important for root development but not specifically for treating root rot.
  • 4. Calcium: Correct. Helps in treating and preventing root rot by strengthening plant cell walls.
  • 5. Magnesium: Important for photosynthesis but not directly for root rot.

35: A plant which can grow in a wide range of salinities is:

Options:

  1. Euryhaline
  2. Stenohaline
  3. Halophyte
  4. Mesophyte
  5. Xerophyte

Answer: 3. Halophyte

Explanation:

  • Halophyte: Plants that are adapted to grow in high salinity conditions. They have mechanisms to tolerate and thrive in saline environments.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Euryhaline: Refers to organisms that can tolerate a range of salinities but not specifically plants.
  • 2. Stenohaline: Refers to organisms that can only tolerate a narrow range of salinities.
  • 3. Halophyte: Correct. Plants that thrive in saline environments.
  • 4. Mesophyte: Plants that require moderate moisture, not specifically related to salinity.
  • 5. Xerophyte: Plants adapted to dry conditions, not specifically related to salinity.

36: Which process is used to increase soil fertility by using green manure?

Options:

  1. Composting
  2. Vermicomposting
  3. Green Manuring
  4. Mulching
  5. Crop Rotation

Answer: 3. Green Manuring

Explanation:

  • Green Manuring: Involves growing specific plants (green manure) and incorporating them into the soil to improve fertility. These plants add organic matter and nutrients to the soil, enhancing soil structure and nutrient content.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Composting: Involves decomposing organic waste into compost but not specifically green manure.
  • 2. Vermicomposting: Uses earthworms to decompose organic material but not related to green manure.
  • 3. Green Manuring: Correct. Directly involves growing and incorporating plants to improve soil fertility.
  • 4. Mulching: Involves covering soil with organic or inorganic material to retain moisture and improve soil health but not specifically green manure.
  • 5. Crop Rotation: Involves growing different crops in succession to improve soil health but not specifically using green manure.

37: The gestation period in cows is approximately:

Options:

  1. 310 days
  2. 283 days
  3. 110 days
  4. 360 days
  5. 245 days

Answer: 2. 283 days

Explanation:

  • 283 days: The average gestation period for cows is about 283 days, which is approximately 9 months and 1 week. This duration can vary slightly depending on the breed and individual cow.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 310 days: Longer than the average gestation period.
  • 2. 283 days: Correct. The typical gestation period for cows.
  • 3. 110 days: Too short for the gestation period of cows.
  • 4. 360 days: Longer than the average gestation period.
  • 5. 245 days: Too short; closer to the gestation period of smaller animals.

38: Which of the following structures receives partial air, water, and sunlight from the atmosphere?

Options:

  1. Polyhouse
  2. Shade Net
  3. Greenhouse
  4. Glasshouse
  5. Hydroponics

Answer: 2. Shade Net

Explanation:

  • Shade Net: This structure provides partial protection from intense sunlight and allows partial air and water to reach the plants. It is used to protect plants from excessive sunlight while still allowing some environmental factors to reach them.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Polyhouse: Provides full protection from external weather conditions and is enclosed.
  • 2. Shade Net: Correct. Allows partial sunlight, air, and water to pass through.
  • 3. Greenhouse: Provides complete enclosure with controlled conditions; does not allow partial exposure.
  • 4. Glasshouse: Similar to a greenhouse, providing full enclosure.
  • 5. Hydroponics: A method of growing plants without soil, involving nutrient-rich water, not related to partial exposure structures.

39: In which of the following varieties of guava is the fruit huge and round-shaped, with primrose yellow skin and is also known as Sardar?

Options:

  1. Safeda
  2. Allahabad Safeda
  3. L-49
  4. Allahabad Surkha
  5. None of these

Answer: 3. L-49

Explanation:

  • L-49: This guava variety is known for its large, round-shaped fruit with primrose yellow skin. It is commonly referred to as Sardar.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Safeda: A variety of guava with white flesh, but not specifically the large round-shaped fruit.
  • 2. Allahabad Safeda: Known for its white flesh and sweetness, not the Sardar variety.
  • 3. L-49: Correct. Recognized for its large, round-shaped fruit with yellow skin.
  • 4. Allahabad Surkha: Known for red skin and pink flesh, not large round-shaped fruit.
  • 5. None of these: Incorrect, as L-49 is the correct variety.

40: How much concentrate is fed to cross-bred exotic 5 months pregnant cattle other than maintenance?

Options:

  1. 0.5 kg
  2. 1.0 kg
  3. 1.5 kg
  4. 2.0 kg
  5. 3.0 kg

Answer: 3. 1.5 kg

Explanation:

  • 1.5 kg: Pregnant cattle, especially cross-bred exotic ones, require additional concentrates to support both their own nutritional needs and the development of the fetus. Approximately 1.5 kg of concentrate is typically recommended.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 0.5 kg: Insufficient for the nutritional needs of pregnant cattle.
  • 2. 1.0 kg: May not be adequate for 5 months pregnant cattle.
  • 3. 1.5 kg: Correct. Recommended amount for additional feeding.
  • 4. 2.0 kg: Slightly more than necessary; usually, 1.5 kg is sufficient.
  • 5. 3.0 kg: Too high; might lead to overfeeding and other issues.

41: The caste of bees which includes imperfectly developed females unable to reproduce is:

Options:

  1. Queen Bee
  2. Drone
  3. Worker Bee
  4. Solitary Bee
  5. All of these

Answer: 3. Worker Bee

Explanation:

  • Worker Bee: Worker bees are the female bees in a colony that are not fully developed for reproduction. They perform tasks like foraging, cleaning, and caring for the queen and larvae.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Queen Bee: The reproductive female in the hive, capable of laying eggs.
  • 2. Drone: Male bees that do not perform worker tasks but help in mating with the queen.
  • 3. Worker Bee: Correct. Imperfectly developed females that do not reproduce.
  • 4. Solitary Bee: Bees that do not live in colonies and reproduce independently.
  • 5. All of these: Incorrect; only worker bees fit the description.

42: The bacterial disease of fish in which the fin edges turn white and fins appear ragged and split is:

Options:

  1. Vibriosis
  2. Dropsy
  3. Fin and Tail Rot
  4. Columnaris
  5. Red Pest

Answer: 3. Fin and Tail Rot

Explanation:

  • Fin and Tail Rot: A bacterial infection that causes the fins and tail of fish to become ragged and turn white. It often results from poor water quality or injury.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Vibriosis: A bacterial infection that affects the internal organs, not specifically causing fin and tail rot.
  • 2. Dropsy: A condition causing swelling in fish, not specifically related to fin appearance.
  • 3. Fin and Tail Rot: Correct. Causes whitening and ragged appearance of fins and tail.
  • 4. Columnaris: Causes lesions and mouth rot but not specifically fin and tail rot.
  • 5. Red Pest: Not a recognized term for this condition.

43: When a plant is propagated by a small tissue or part of a plant, then that particular technique is termed as:

Options:

  1. Hybridization
  2. Somatic Hybridization
  3. Sexual Propagation
  4. Micro-Propagation
  5. None of These

Answer: 4. Micro-Propagation

Explanation:

  • Micro-Propagation: A technique used to propagate plants from small tissues or parts of a plant, often through tissue culture. It allows for the rapid production of many plants from a single individual.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Hybridization: Involves crossing different plant varieties to produce hybrids, not related to small tissue propagation.
  • 2. Somatic Hybridization: Involves fusing somatic cells to create hybrids, not specific to small tissue propagation.
  • 3. Sexual Propagation: Involves using seeds, not small tissue propagation.
  • 4. Micro-Propagation: Correct. Refers to the propagation of plants from small tissue or plant parts.
  • 5. None of These: Incorrect. Micro-propagation is the correct term.

44: Which of the following fish has lungs as labyrinth?

Options:

  1. Catla
  2. Rohu
  3. Mrigal
  4. Gourami
  5. None of these

Answer: 4. Gourami

Explanation:

  • Gourami: Gouramis are a group of freshwater fish that possess a specialized labyrinth organ. This organ acts like a lung, allowing them to breathe air directly and survive in low-oxygen environments.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Catla: A freshwater fish that does not have a labyrinth organ. It primarily relies on gills for respiration.
  • 2. Rohu: Another freshwater fish with gills for respiration, not a labyrinth organ.
  • 3. Mrigal: Similar to Catla and Rohu, Mrigal uses gills for breathing.
  • 4. Gourami: Correct. Uses a labyrinth organ to breathe air, allowing it to thrive in oxygen-poor water.
  • 5. None of these: Incorrect, as Gourami is the correct answer.

45: When is dehaulming done in potato crop?

Options:

  1. 5 days before harvesting
  2. 30 – 35 days before harvesting
  3. 10-15 days before harvesting
  4. Just before harvesting
  5. None of the above

Answer: 3. 10-15 days before harvesting

Explanation:

  • 10-15 days before harvesting: Dehaulming is the process of removing the haulms (tops) of the potato plants before harvest. This is typically done 10-15 days prior to harvesting to allow the tubers to mature and the skins to set, which helps in reducing damage during harvesting.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 5 days before harvesting: Too close to the harvesting time; may not allow sufficient time for tuber maturity.
  • 2. 30 – 35 days before harvesting: Too early for dehaulming; tubers may not be sufficiently mature.
  • 3. 10-15 days before harvesting: Correct. Provides adequate time for tubers to mature and skins to harden.
  • 4. Just before harvesting: May not allow enough time for proper skin setting and tuber maturity.
  • 5. None of the above: Incorrect, as 10-15 days before harvesting is the appropriate time.

46: An extreme form of minimum tillage where primary tillage is completely avoided and secondary tillage is restricted to row zone or seed bed zone only is:

Options:

  1. Minimum tillage
  2. Strip tillage
  3. Ridge tillage
  4. Stubble mulch farming
  5. Zero tillage

Answer: 5. Zero tillage

Explanation:

  • Zero tillage: This is a conservation tillage practice where the soil is left undisturbed from the previous harvest, and primary tillage is completely avoided. Secondary tillage is limited to the row zone or seed bed, minimizing soil disruption and preserving soil structure and moisture.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Minimum tillage: Involves reducing tillage operations but does not eliminate primary tillage entirely.
  • 2. Strip tillage: Involves tilling only narrow strips where crops are planted, leaving the rest of the field undisturbed.
  • 3. Ridge tillage: Involves forming ridges and planting crops on these ridges, with some tillage between the rows.
  • 4. Stubble mulch farming: Involves leaving crop residue on the soil surface to reduce erosion and conserve moisture.
  • 5. Zero tillage: Correct. Avoids primary tillage entirely and limits secondary tillage.

47: ……….. used in tractor transmission for attaching combine harvester and thresher to tractor.

Options:

  1. Tractor Pulley
  2. Power Take Off
  3. Battery
  4. Hitch
  5. Drawbar

Answer: 2. Power Take Off

Explanation:

  • Power Take Off (PTO): This is a mechanism used in tractors to transfer power from the tractor’s engine to various implements such as combine harvesters and threshers. The PTO allows these implements to operate effectively by using the tractor’s power.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Tractor Pulley: Used for transferring rotational power but not specifically for attaching implements.
  • 2. Power Take Off (PTO): Correct. Used for connecting and powering implements like combine harvesters and threshers.
  • 3. Battery: Provides electrical power, not for attaching implements.
  • 4. Hitch: Used for attaching implements but does not transfer power.
  • 5. Drawbar: Used for pulling implements but not for powering them.

48: Which of the following is responsible for seed dormancy?

Options:

  1. Physical Cracking
  2. Fungal Growth
  3. Pathogen Infestation
  4. Distorted Seed Coat
  5. Immature Embryo

Answer: 5. Immature Embryo

Explanation:

  • Immature Embryo: Seed dormancy can occur due to an immature embryo within the seed, which prevents germination until it reaches a certain level of development.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Physical Cracking: Can aid in breaking dormancy, not causing it.
  • 2. Fungal Growth: May affect seed health but not typically a cause of dormancy.
  • 3. Pathogen Infestation: Can damage seeds but is not a common cause of dormancy.
  • 4. Distorted Seed Coat: Can be a factor but usually involves other mechanisms.
  • 5. Immature Embryo: Correct. Immature embryos are a common cause of seed dormancy as they need to mature before germination.

49: Loans against hypothecation of agriculture produce for up to 12 months period subject to a limit of up to ………………………. against NWR/eNWR.

Options:

  1. 5 lakh
  2. 25 lakh
  3. 50 lakh
  4. 75 lakh
  5. 85 lakh

Answer: 4. 75 lakh

Explanation:

  • 75 lakh: Under the system of hypothecation of agricultural produce, loans can be sanctioned against the produce stored, and the maximum limit for such loans is up to ₹75 lakh against a Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (NWR) or electronic NWR (eNWR). This facility helps farmers by providing them with short-term credit while their produce is stored.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 5 lakh: Too low for modern agricultural loan limits.
  • 2. 25 lakh: Less than the maximum limit provided.
  • 3. 50 lakh: Less than the current limit.
  • 4. 75 lakh: Correct. Maximum limit for loans against NWR/eNWR.
  • 5. 85 lakh: Exceeds the current maximum limit.

50: The sugarcane ripening is indicated by ___% of TSS (Total Soluble Solids).

Options:

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 20
  4. 25
  5. 33

Answer: 3. 20

Explanation:

  • 20% TSS: Sugarcane ripening is commonly indicated when the Total Soluble Solids (TSS) reach around 20%. TSS is a measure of the sugar content in the cane, and reaching this level indicates that the sugarcane has matured and is ready for harvesting.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 10: Too low; sugarcane would not be ripe at this TSS level.
  • 2. 12: Slightly below the typical ripeness threshold.
  • 3. 20: Correct. Indicative of ripeness in sugarcane.
  • 4. 25: Higher than the typical ripeness level; could indicate over-ripeness.
  • 5. 33: Unusually high; indicates over-ripeness or excessive sugar concentration.

51: An element which forms the component of protein and chlorophyll and is required in amino acid formation is:

Options:

  1. N
  2. P
  3. K
  4. Mg
  5. S

Answer: 1. N (Nitrogen)

Explanation:

  • Nitrogen (N): Nitrogen is crucial for the formation of amino acids, proteins, and chlorophyll. It is an essential component of nucleic acids and is a key nutrient for plant growth. Nitrogen deficiency leads to poor growth and reduced chlorophyll production.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. N: Correct. Essential for proteins, chlorophyll, and amino acids.
  • 2. P (Phosphorus): Important for energy transfer and root development, not directly for proteins or chlorophyll.
  • 3. K (Potassium): Vital for enzyme activation and water regulation, but not a direct component of proteins or chlorophyll.
  • 4. Mg (Magnesium): Component of chlorophyll but not primarily for amino acids or proteins.
  • 5. S (Sulfur): Important for some amino acids and proteins, but less central to protein formation than nitrogen.

52: Norin 10 is a dwarfing gene of:

Options:

  1. Rice
  2. Wheat
  3. Maize
  4. Bajra
  5. None of these

Answer: 2. Wheat

Explanation:

  • Wheat: Norin 10 is a dwarfing gene originally found in wheat. It has been widely used in breeding programs to develop shorter, more robust wheat varieties that are less likely to lodge and have improved yields.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Rice: Dwarfing genes in rice include genes like “IR8” but not Norin 10.
  • 2. Wheat: Correct. Norin 10 is a well-known dwarfing gene in wheat breeding.
  • 3. Maize: Uses different dwarfing genes, such as “dwarf8.”
  • 4. Bajra: Also known as pearl millet, does not use Norin 10.
  • 5. None of these: Incorrect as Norin 10 is specific to wheat.

53: ACABC (Agri-Clinic or Agri-business Centre) takes training from which of the following organizations?

Options:

  1. ATMA
  2. NABARD
  3. KVK
  4. ICAR
  5. MANAGE

Answer: 5. MANAGE

Explanation:

  • MANAGE (National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management): MANAGE provides training and support for the ACABC scheme. This program helps individuals set up agri-clinics or agri-business centers and offers training to ensure their success.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. ATMA (Agricultural Technology Management Agency): Focuses on agricultural technology and extension services but not specifically for ACABC training.
  • 2. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development): Provides financial support and credit but not the main organization for ACABC training.
  • 3. KVK (Krishi Vigyan Kendra): Offers agricultural training and extension services but not specifically for ACABC.
  • 4. ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research): Conducts research and offers training in agriculture but not specifically for ACABC.
  • 5. MANAGE: Correct. Provides specific training for the ACABC scheme.

54: In Production function curve, which stage starts when AP and MP intersect each other and E is equal to 1?

Options:

  1. Stage 1
  2. Stage 2
  3. Stage 3
  4. Both A and B
  5. Both A and C

Answer: 2. Stage 2

Explanation:

  • Stage 2: In production theory, Stage 2 begins when Average Product (AP) and Marginal Product (MP) intersect each other. In this stage, the MP starts to decline but is still above the AP. The Efficiency (E) is equal to 1 at this point, indicating the optimal use of resources.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Stage 1: In this stage, AP is increasing, and MP is greater than AP. This stage ends when AP and MP intersect.
  • 2. Stage 2: Correct. This stage starts when AP and MP intersect and is characterized by declining MP but still above AP.
  • 3. Stage 3: MP falls below AP, and this stage is characterized by decreasing returns.
  • 4. Both A and B: Incorrect, as Stage 1 is before the intersection of AP and MP.
  • 5. Both A and C: Incorrect, as Stage 2 is the correct stage where AP and MP intersect.

55: Which among the following fishes is not a surface water (pelagic) fish?

Options:

  1. Anchovies
  2. Sardines
  3. Flatfish
  4. Mackerels
  5. Tuna

Answer: 3. Flatfish

Explanation:

  • Flatfish: Flatfish, such as flounders and soles, are benthic fish that live on or near the sea floor, rather than in the open water column. They are not classified as pelagic (surface water) fish.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Anchovies: Pelagic fish that are found in surface waters.
  • 2. Sardines: Pelagic fish, commonly found in schools near the surface.
  • 3. Flatfish: Correct. Not a pelagic fish; they inhabit the bottom of the ocean.
  • 4. Mackerels: Pelagic fish that live in the open sea.
  • 5. Tuna: Pelagic fish that are known for their open-water habits.

56: Which of the following is not a major pigment of photosynthesis?

Options:

  1. Chlorophyll a
  2. Chlorophyll b
  3. Carotene
  4. Both A and B
  5. All of these

Answer: 3. Carotene

Explanation:

  • Carotene: Although carotene (a type of carotenoid) is involved in photosynthesis and contributes to the color of plants, it is not a primary pigment responsible for the photosynthetic process. The major pigments for photosynthesis are chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Chlorophyll a: The primary pigment involved in the light reactions of photosynthesis.
  • 2. Chlorophyll b: An accessory pigment that assists in capturing light energy for photosynthesis.
  • 3. Carotene: An accessory pigment involved in light absorption but not a major pigment of photosynthesis.
  • 4. Both A and B: Incorrect as both chlorophyll a and b are major pigments.
  • 5. All of these: Incorrect as chlorophyll a and b are major pigments, while carotene is an accessory pigment.

57: Carbohydrate is present only around ……………… of total animal body

Options:

  1. 1%
  2. 2%
  3. 5%
  4. 10%
  5. 30%

Answer: 1. 1%

Explanation:

  • 1%: Carbohydrates constitute only a small percentage of the total body weight in animals, typically around 1%. They are present mainly in the form of glycogen in the liver and muscles.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 1%: Correct. Carbohydrates are present in relatively low quantities in the animal body.
  • 2. 2%: Still low, but not as accurate as 1%.
  • 3. 5%: Overestimates the carbohydrate content in the body.
  • 4. 10%: Too high for carbohydrate content in animals.
  • 5. 30%: Much higher than the actual percentage of carbohydrates in the body.

58: Jaya, a high yielding variety developed in India which outyield both its parent was a cross between:

Options:

  1. TN-1 x IR-8
  2. TN-1 x T-141
  3. T-141 x TN-1
  4. IR-8 x Lerma Rojo
  5. None of these

Answer: 2. TN-1 x T-141

Explanation:

  • TN-1 x T-141: Jaya is a high-yielding variety of rice developed in India through the cross of TN-1 and T-141. It is known for its improved yield and performance over its parent varieties.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. TN-1 x IR-8: Incorrect. IR-8 was a parent for other high-yielding varieties but not for Jaya.
  • 2. TN-1 x T-141: Correct. The cross that resulted in the Jaya variety.
  • 3. T-141 x TN-1: Incorrect, though the varieties are correct, the order of cross is not specified.
  • 4. IR-8 x Lerma Rojo: Incorrect. IR-8 was crossed with other varieties, not with Lerma Rojo for Jaya.
  • 5. None of these: Incorrect as TN-1 x T-141 is the correct cross.

59: ___ is a method used to observe the growth and development of an embryo inside an egg by using a bright light source behind the egg to show details through the shell.

Options:

  1. Brooding
  2. Candling
  3. Broiling
  4. Auto sexing
  5. Pipping

Answer: 2. Candling

Explanation:

  • Candling: This is the method used to observe the development of an embryo within an egg. It involves shining a bright light through the egg to visualize the embryo and its development.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. Brooding: Refers to the care and management of young chicks.
  • 2. Candling: Correct. Used to check the embryo’s development inside an egg.
  • 3. Broiling: Cooking method involving direct heat.
  • 4. Auto sexing: A method to identify the sex of chicks.
  • 5. Pipping: Refers to the process where the chick starts to break out of the egg shell.

60: In an offset harrow, the number of gangs is/are:

Options:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 6

Answer: 2. 2

Explanation:

  • Offset Harrow: An offset harrow is a type of harrow used for primary and secondary tillage. It is designed to work in a way that allows for a more aggressive and thorough tillage operation. The term “gang” refers to a set of discs or blades that are mounted on the harrow.

Details for Each Option:

  • 1. 1 Gang: Not typical for an offset harrow, as it generally has more than one gang.
  • 2. 2 Gangs: Correct. Offset harrows commonly have two gangs of discs arranged in an offset pattern, which allows for better coverage and more efficient soil tillage.
  • 3. 3 Gangs: Less common for offset harrows; typically, they have two gangs.
  • 4. 4 Gangs: More common in some types of harrows, but less typical for standard offset harrows.
  • 5. 6 Gangs: Not standard for offset harrows; more gangs are generally found in larger or more complex tillage equipment.

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2020 – 21 Previous Year Paper

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2020 - 21 Previous Year Paper

1. The credit for the success of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) goes to?

Options:

  1. Dr. Mangla Rai
  2. Dr. RS Paroda
  3. Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta
  4. Dr. MS Swaminathan
  5. Dr. Chandrika Prasad

Answer: Dr. Chandrika Prasad

Explanation:

  • Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK): KVKs are agricultural extension centers established in India to provide practical training to farmers. The development and implementation of KVKs have been significantly influenced by several agricultural scientists and administrators.
  • Dr. Chandrika Prasad: He is credited with the conceptualization and initiation of the KVK system. His efforts were instrumental in establishing the framework and ensuring the success of these centers.
  • Other Notables:
    • Dr. MS Swaminathan and Dr. RS Paroda are also renowned agricultural scientists who contributed significantly to Indian agriculture, but the specific credit for KVKs is often attributed to Dr. Chandrika Prasad.

2. ICMR recommendation for vegetables (g/day) is?

Options:

  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 400
  5. 500

Answer: 300

Explanation:

  • ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research): ICMR provides dietary guidelines and nutritional recommendations for the Indian population.
  • Recommendation for Vegetables: According to ICMR guidelines, the recommended daily intake of vegetables is 300 grams per day. This recommendation helps in maintaining a balanced diet and ensuring adequate nutrient intake.

3. In which of the following crops was the discovery of mosaic done in 1886 by Mayer?

Options:

  1. Cucumber
  2. Tobacco
  3. Brinjal
  4. Tomato
  5. Potato

Answer: Tobacco

Explanation:

  • Mosaic Disease Discovery: The first description of mosaic disease, which affects various plants, was made by the German botanist Adolf Mayer in 1886. He identified this disease in tobacco plants.
  • Historical Context: Mayer’s discovery was a significant step in plant pathology, contributing to the understanding of plant diseases and their transmission.

4. Which of the following is not a sedimentary rock?

Options:

  1. Granite
  2. Sandstone
  3. Shale
  4. Limestone
  5. Conglomerate

Answer: Granite

Explanation:

  • Sedimentary Rocks: These are formed by the accumulation and consolidation of sediments. Examples include sandstone, shale, limestone, and conglomerate.
  • Granite: Granite is an igneous rock formed from the cooling and solidification of magma. It is not a sedimentary rock but rather an intrusive igneous rock.

5. Which crop is affected by blossom end rot, and which mineral nutrient deficiency causes this disorder?

  1. Tomato, Magnesium
  2. Onion, Magnesium
  3. Onion, Calcium
  4. Potato, Nitrogen
  5. Tomato, Calcium

Answer: Tomato, Calcium

Explanation: Blossom end rot is a physiological disorder that commonly affects tomatoes. It is caused by a deficiency in calcium, an essential nutrient for cell wall stability. Without adequate calcium, the cell walls become weak, leading to the characteristic dark, sunken areas at the blossom end of the fruit. This issue is often exacerbated by irregular watering practices, which disrupt calcium uptake by the plant. Ensuring consistent soil moisture and sufficient calcium availability can help prevent blossom end rot.

6. Mustard belongs to which of the following plant families?

  1. Cucurbitaceae
  2. Solanaceae
  3. Cruciferae
  4. Leguminosae
  5. Gramineae

Answer: Cruciferae

Explanation: Mustard is a member of the Cruciferae family, also known as the Brassicaceae family. This family includes other cruciferous vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli, and cauliflower. The Cruciferae family is characterized by its four-petaled flowers and the presence of mustard oil in its members.

7. The combination of tree, crop, and pasture/animal in agroforestry is called:

  1. Horti-Silvi
  2. Agri-Horti
  3. Agri-Silvi
  4. Agri-Silvi Pasture system
  5. Tree-Horti

Answer: Agri-Silvi Pasture system

Explanation: The Agri-Silvi Pasture system integrates trees, crops, and pasture/animals in a single agricultural system. This type of agroforestry practice aims to optimize the use of land by combining different types of land use in a sustainable manner, enhancing productivity and ecological balance.

8.Which of the following chemicals is used to induce polyploidy in plants?

  1. IAA
  2. NAA
  3. Colchicine
  4. Gibberellins
  5. Cytokinin

Answer: Colchicine

Explanation: Colchicine is a chemical used to induce polyploidy in plants. It works by disrupting chromosome separation during cell division, leading to the production of cells with multiple sets of chromosomes. This process can result in plants with larger and often more vigorous growth.

9. Pungency in onions is due to:

  1. Allyl Propyl Disulphide
  2. Di allyl di sulphide
  3. Isopropanol
  4. Saponin
  5. None

Answer: Allyl Propyl Disulphide

Explanation: The pungency in onions is primarily caused by a sulfur compound known as Allyl Propyl Disulphide. When onions are cut or damaged, enzymes break down sulfur-containing compounds into this pungent substance, which contributes to the characteristic sharp flavor and tear-inducing properties of onions.

Here are the revised questions and answers with explanations:

10. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid is used as a hormone and also used as:

1. Insecticide
2. Fungicide
3. Herbicide
4. Nematicide
5. None of the above

Answer: Herbicide

Explanation: 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) is primarily used as a herbicide. It is a synthetic auxin that targets broadleaf weeds. It is not used as an insecticide, fungicide, or nematicide.

11. The process of unwinding silk filaments from the cocoons is known as:

1. Weaving
2. Reeling
3. Stifling
4. Degumming
5. Spinning

Answer: Reeling

Explanation: Reeling is the process of unwinding silk filaments from the cocoons. This is an essential step in silk production, where the continuous threads of silk are extracted from the cocoon.

12. As per FSSAI standards, what is the SNF (Solid Not Fat) content of cow milk?

1. 8
2. 8.5
3. 9.0
4. 9.5
5. 7.5

Answer: 8.5

Explanation: According to FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) standards, the SNF content of cow milk is around 8.5%. SNF includes proteins, lactose, and minerals found in milk.

13. What is the fruit type of pineapple?

1. Berry
2. Drupe
3. Pome
4. Sorosis
5. Pepo

Answer: Sorosis

Explanation: Pineapple is classified as a sorosis, a type of multiple fruit that forms from a cluster of flowers (inflorescence) with fused ovaries, resulting in a single fruit structure.

14. Oryza sativa is the scientific name of which crop?

1. Paddy
2. Wheat
3. Maize
4. Sorghum
5. Pearl millet

Answer: Paddy

Explanation: Oryza sativa is the scientific name for rice, which is commonly known as paddy when it is still growing in the field or in its harvested form.

15. A negative factor in the adoption of an innovation is:

1. Compatibility
2. Complexity
3. Trialability
4. Observability
5. Predictability

Answer: Complexity

Explanation: Complexity refers to how difficult an innovation is to understand and use. High complexity can be a barrier to adoption, as potential users may find it challenging to implement or require extensive training.

16. R.M. test is related to which of the following dairy products?

  1. Ghee
  2. Whole Milk Powder
  3. Curd
  4. Butter
  5. Paneer

Answer: Ghee

Explanation: The R.M. test (Rancidity Measure test) is used to determine the rancidity level in ghee, which is a clarified butter. This test helps assess the quality and shelf life of ghee by measuring the extent of oxidative degradation of fats.

17. Bordeaux Mixture is:

  1. Nitrogen Fungicide
  2. Phosphorous Fungicide
  3. Magnesium Fungicide
  4. Copper Fungicide
  5. None of the above

Answer: Copper Fungicide

Explanation: Bordeaux Mixture is a fungicide composed of copper sulfate and lime. It is used to control a variety of fungal diseases in plants. The copper component is the active ingredient that provides the fungicidal action.

18. Disintegration of arils in matured pomegranates where the disorder cannot be identified externally, whereas the arils become soft, light creamy-brown to dark blackish-brown and unfit for consumption, is known as:

  1. Internal Breakdown
  2. Granulation
  3. Fruit Cracking
  4. Uneven Ripening
  5. Hollow Heart

Answer: Internal Breakdown

Explanation: Internal Breakdown in pomegranates refers to the condition where the arils disintegrate internally, becoming soft and discolored. This disorder is not always visible externally but makes the fruit unfit for consumption due to the deterioration of the arils.

19. Ratoon sugarcane is different from pure crop due to:

  1. Requires Zero Nitrogen
  2. More N required
  3. Ratooning is Costly
  4. Matures Late
  5. Matures Early

Answer: More N required

Explanation: Ratoon sugarcane, which is grown from the stubble of the previous crop, generally requires more nitrogen compared to pure sugarcane crops. This is because the ratoon crop has to recover and utilize residual nutrients efficiently.

20. European honey bees are called:

  1. Apis mellifera
  2. Apis florea
  3. Apis cerena
  4. Apis dorsata
  5. Melipona irridepensis

Answer: Apis mellifera

Explanation: The European honey bee is scientifically named Apis mellifera. It is one of the most well-known and widely kept species of honey bees around the world for honey production and pollination services.

21. Mandis are which type of market?

  1. Local market
  2. Primary Market
  3. Secondary Market
  4. Fair
  5. Export Market

Answer: Primary Market

Explanation: Mandis are primary markets where agricultural produce is directly sold by farmers to traders or buyers. They serve as the initial point of sale in the agricultural supply chain, before the produce moves to secondary or wholesale markets.

22. Retting is the process of which crop?

  1. Tomato
  2. Rice
  3. Wheat
  4. Maize
  5. Jute

Answer: Jute

Explanation: Retting is a process used in the extraction of fibers from jute. It involves soaking the jute stalks in water to decompose the surrounding tissues and separate the fibers, which can then be processed into textiles and other products.

23. Smother crops can be defined as:

  1. Crops grown to suppress weed infestation by their dense ground covering
  2. Crops grown to maintain soil moisture by their dense foliage
  3. Definition of Catch crop
  4. Definition of Inter crop
  5. None of the above

Answer: Crops grown to suppress weed infestation by their dense ground covering

Explanation: Smother crops are planted specifically to suppress weeds. Their dense growth covers the ground and prevents weed seeds from germinating and growing, reducing weed competition and aiding in soil management.

24. Which of the following is known as silk protein?

  1. Proline
  2. Resilin
  3. Arthropodin
  4. Sericin
  5. None

Answer: Sericin

Explanation: Sericin is a protein found in silk, produced by silkworms. It is one of the main components of silk fiber, along with fibroin. Sericin is responsible for the stickiness of the silk threads and helps hold the fibers together.

25. Removal of off-type plants is called:

  1. Rouging
  2. Ploughing
  3. Harrowing
  4. Digging
  5. Dehaulming

Answer: Rouging

Explanation: Rouging is the practice of removing off-type or undesirable plants from a crop field. This process helps maintain the purity of the plant variety and improves the overall quality of the harvest.

26. Which of the following housing systems is used in commercial layer farming cage systems in poultry with dimensions of 14×16 inches or height 17 inches?

  1. Semi Intensive system
  2. Battery cage
  3. Folding cage
  4. Deep litter
  5. Free range

Answer: Battery cage

Explanation: The battery cage system is a type of housing for commercial layer poultry where hens are kept in small, confined cages. The dimensions specified (14×16 inches or height 17 inches) are characteristic of battery cages, which are designed to maximize space efficiency in egg production.

27. Decreasing order of water holding capacity is:

  1. Clay > Silt > Sand
  2. Sand > Silt > Clay
  3. Silt > Sand > Clay
  4. Clay > Sand > Silt
  5. Silt > Clay > Sand

Answer: Clay > Silt > Sand

Explanation: Soil types vary in their ability to hold water based on their particle size and structure. Clay has the highest water-holding capacity due to its small particles and high surface area, which allow it to retain water more effectively. Silt holds a moderate amount of water, while sand, with its larger particles and lower surface area, holds the least water.

28. Buffalo milk is whiter than cow milk due to:

  1. High Fat content than cow
  2. High Calcium content than cow
  3. Due to conversion of beta-carotene into colorless vitamin A
  4. Due to presence of riboflavin
  5. None of the above

Answer: Due to conversion of beta-carotene into colorless vitamin A

Explanation: Buffalo milk appears whiter than cow milk because it contains less beta-carotene, a pigment that imparts a yellowish color. In buffalo milk, beta-carotene is converted into colorless vitamin A, resulting in a whiter appearance compared to cow milk.

29. Pendimethalin is used against:

  1. Weed
  2. Bacteria
  3. Nematode
  4. Virus
  5. Fungus

Answer: Weed

Explanation: Pendimethalin is a pre-emergence herbicide that controls a wide range of annual grasses and broadleaf weeds. It works by inhibiting the process of cell division in weed seedlings, preventing their growth and emergence from the soil.

30. Zoonosis diseases are infectious diseases that spread:

  1. Non-human/animal to Human
  2. Human to Animal
  3. Human to Human
  4. Animal to Animal
  5. None of the above

Answer: Non-human/animal to Human

Explanation: Zoonotic diseases are those that can be transmitted from animals to humans. These diseases can be caused by various pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, parasites, and fungi. Examples include rabies, Lyme disease, and salmonella.

31. Breed of Buffalo which has sickle-shaped horns, turned downward in backward direction, skin color either brown or black, and is found in Gujarat is:

  1. Bhadawari
  2. Toda
  3. Murrah
  4. Surti
  5. None of the above

Answer: Surti

Explanation: The Surti buffalo breed, native to Gujarat, is characterized by its sickle-shaped horns that curve downward and backward. This breed typically has brown or black skin and is known for its good milk production and adaptability to the local climate.

32. Progeny of Breeder seed which should maintain certain germination standards and should be approved by a certification agency is:

  1. Foundation Seed
  2. Certified Seed
  3. Nucleus Seed
  4. Truthfully Labelled
  5. Registered Seed

Answer: Foundation Seed

Explanation: Foundation seed is the progeny of breeder seed and is produced under controlled conditions to maintain certain germination and purity standards. It is the first stage in the seed certification process, followed by certified seed. Certified seed comes from foundation seed and is further tested and approved for planting.

33. Dropping the seeds in furrow lines in a continuous stream and covering them with soil is known as:

  1. Drilling
  2. Dibbling
  3. Broadcasting
  4. Both B and C
  5. None of the above

Answer: Drilling

Explanation: Drilling refers to the method of sowing seeds in furrow lines at a specific depth and spacing, which is then covered with soil. This technique ensures better seed placement and is commonly used for crops where precise planting is needed. Dibbling involves placing seeds at specific spots, while broadcasting involves spreading seeds over the soil surface.

34. What is the premium rate payable by PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana) beneficiaries for Rabi crops (% of SI or Actuarial rate)?

  1. 2.0%
  2. 5.0%
  3. 3.0%
  4. 0.5%
  5. 1.5%

Answer: 1.5%

Explanation: Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the premium rate for Rabi crops is 1.5% of the sum insured (SI) or actuarial rate. This scheme aims to provide insurance coverage and financial support to farmers in case of crop loss due to various risks.

35. Soil moisture is measured by which of the following equipment?

  1. Hygrometer
  2. Tensiometer
  3. Anemometer
  4. Barometer
  5. Lux meter

Answer: Tensiometer

Explanation: A tensiometer is an instrument used to measure soil moisture. It helps determine the amount of water available to plants by measuring the tension or suction with which plants hold onto water in the soil. Other instruments listed measure different environmental factors.

36. Name the technique in which generation of nitrogen cycle by maintaining a higher C ratio through stimulating heterotrophic microbial growth, that can be used as feed for the cultured species is:

  1. Integrated Fish Farming
  2. Biofloc Fish Farming
  3. Inland Fish Farming
  4. Brackish Fish Farming
  5. None of the above

Answer: Biofloc Fish Farming

Explanation: Biofloc fish farming is a technique where the nitrogen cycle is managed by maintaining a high carbon-to-nitrogen (C) ratio, which stimulates the growth of heterotrophic microorganisms. These microorganisms form a floc (a type of microbial biomass) that can be used as feed for fish, enhancing water quality and reducing the need for external feed inputs.

37. Alkaline Soil can be reclaimed by using:

  1. Gypsum
  2. Lime
  3. Ammonium Phosphate
  4. Urea
  5. None of the above

Answer: Gypsum

Explanation: Gypsum (calcium sulfate) is commonly used to reclaim alkaline soils. It helps to displace sodium ions from the soil exchange sites, improving soil structure and reducing alkalinity. Lime is typically used to raise soil pH in acidic soils, not alkaline ones.

38. Late blight is the disease of:

  1. Tobacco
  2. Maize
  3. Paddy
  4. Potato
  5. Rice

Answer: Potato

Explanation: Late blight is a serious plant disease caused by the oomycete pathogen Phytophthora infestans. It primarily affects potatoes and tomatoes, leading to symptoms such as dark, water-soaked lesions on leaves and stems. This disease can cause significant crop losses if not managed properly.

39. Fruit type of rose is:

  1. Balusta
  2. Berry
  3. Pome
  4. Stone
  5. Hip

Answer: Hip

Explanation: The fruit of a rose plant is called a hip. Rose hips are typically small, round, and red or orange, and they contain seeds. They are often used in herbal teas, jams, and other products due to their high vitamin C content.

40. Superiority of F1 hybrid over both the parents in terms of yield and some other characters is known as:

  1. Dominance
  2. Hybrid Vigour
  3. Heterosis
  4. Inbreeding
  5. Pure Line

Answer: Heterosis

Explanation: Heterosis, or hybrid vigour, refers to the phenomenon where F1 hybrids exhibit superior qualities, such as increased yield, growth rate, or resistance to diseases, compared to their parent strains. This occurs due to the increased genetic diversity in hybrid plants.

41. Mould board instrument is used for:

  1. Weeding
  2. Hoeing
  3. Digging
  4. Earthing up
  5. Ploughing

Answer: Ploughing

Explanation: A mouldboard plough is an agricultural implement used for ploughing. It turns the soil, creating a well-prepared seedbed by inverting and breaking up the soil, which helps in improving soil aeration and removing weeds.

42. Scratching, rubbing, and softening the seed coat to make it permeable for water is known as:

  1. Scarification
  2. Stratification
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above
  5. All of these

Answer: Scarification

Explanation: Scarification is the process of mechanically or chemically altering the seed coat to facilitate water absorption and promote germination. This process is often used for seeds with hard or thick seed coats that are difficult for water to penetrate. Stratification, on the other hand, involves treating seeds with cold temperatures to break dormancy.

43. Piercing and sucking type mouth parts are found in which order?

  1. Diptera
  2. Isoptera
  3. Hemiptera
  4. Orthoptera
  5. Thysanoptera

Answer: Hemiptera

Explanation: The Hemiptera order, also known as true bugs, is characterized by insects with piercing and sucking mouthparts. These mouthparts are adapted for extracting fluids from plants or other animals. Examples include aphids, leafhoppers, and bed bugs.

44. Parallel and non-parallel strands in the DNA helix are connected by which bond?

  1. Phosphate Bond
  2. Covalent Bond
  3. Phosphodiester Bond
  4. Hydrogen Bond
  5. None of the above

Answer: Hydrogen Bond

Explanation: In the DNA double helix, the two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases. Adenine pairs with thymine, and guanine pairs with cytosine through these hydrogen bonds, which stabilize the double-stranded structure.

45. Anammox is related to:

  1. Carbon Cycle
  2. Nitrogen Cycle
  3. Sulphur Cycle
  4. Hydrogen Cycle
  5. None of the above

Answer: Nitrogen Cycle

Explanation: Anammox (anaerobic ammonia oxidation) is a process within the nitrogen cycle where ammonia (NH₃) and nitrite (NO₂⁻) are converted into nitrogen gas (N₂) under anaerobic conditions. This process is crucial in the removal of nitrogen compounds from wastewater.

46. Symptoms of Powdery Mildew of Pea first appear on:

  1. Pods
  2. Roots
  3. Flower
  4. Stem
  5. Leaves

Answer: Leaves

Explanation: Powdery mildew of pea initially manifests as white, powdery spots on the leaves. As the disease progresses, it can spread to stems, flowers, and pods. Early detection on leaves is crucial for effective management of the disease.

47. Rickets in children, osteomalacia in adults, milk fever in animals, and reduction in milk yield are due to deficiency of which nutrient?

  1. Ca
  2. Mg
  3. K
  4. P
  5. Na

Answer: Ca (Calcium)

Explanation: Calcium deficiency leads to rickets in children, osteomalacia in adults, and milk fever in animals. Calcium is essential for bone health, and its deficiency can cause these conditions, as well as reduced milk yield in dairy animals.

48. Japanese encephalitis is mainly transmitted by:

  1. Cattle
  2. Pig
  3. Dog
  4. Mosquito
  5. Horse

Answer: Mosquito

Explanation: Japanese encephalitis is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes, particularly those of the Culex species. The disease is caused by a flavivirus and affects the central nervous system, leading to inflammation of the brain.

49. Why do we perform effluent treatment of any pond?

  1. To reduce the organic content
  2. To increase the organic content
  3. To reduce oxygen
  4. To increase carbon dioxide
  5. To enrich with nutrients

Answer: To reduce the organic content

Explanation: Effluent treatment in ponds is conducted to reduce the organic content and pollutants in the water. This process helps in improving water quality, preventing the proliferation of harmful microorganisms, and maintaining a healthy aquatic environment.

50. Name the scheme launched by the Government of India to provide income support to farmers of ₹6000/year:

  1. NRLM
  2. PMKMY
  3. PMKISAN
  4. PMFBY
  5. PMKVY

Answer: PMKISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi)

Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PMKISAN) scheme provides direct income support to farmers by offering ₹6000 per year in three equal installments. This initiative aims to enhance the financial stability of small and marginal farmers.

51. The process of giving birth in sows is known as:

  1. Kidding
  2. Farrowing
  3. Calving
  4. Lambing
  5. All of the above

Answer: Farrowing

Explanation: Farrowing is the term used for the process of giving birth in pigs (sows). It is equivalent to calving in cattle, lambing in sheep, and kidding in goats.

52. Antheraea mylitta is the botanical name of:

  1. Temperate Tasar
  2. Temperate Muga
  3. Tropical Tasar
  4. Tropical Muga
  5. Sub-tropical Tasar

Answer: Tropical Tasar

Explanation: Antheraea mylitta is the scientific name for the Tropical Tasar silkworm. It is used in the production of Tasar silk, which is a type of wild silk found in tropical regions.

53. The cross of two different breeds with alternative mating is known as:

  1. Criss-cross
  2. Back cross
  3. Test Cross
  4. Outcross
  5. Close breeding

Answer: Criss-cross

Explanation: Criss-cross breeding involves crossing two different breeds or varieties in an alternating manner to combine desirable traits from both. This method helps in maintaining genetic diversity and improving specific characteristics in the offspring.

54. What is the planting pattern for sugarcane followed in Maharashtra and Karnataka?

  1. June – July
  2. July – September
  3. September – October
  4. November – December
  5. January – February

Answer: September – October

Explanation: In Maharashtra and Karnataka, the optimal planting period for sugarcane is generally from September to October. This timing aligns with the monsoon season, which provides adequate moisture for the initial growth of sugarcane.

55. Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for various agricultural crops are announced by the central government based on the recommendation of:

  1. NAFED
  2. ICAR
  3. CACP
  4. BIS
  5. NABARD

Answer: CACP (Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices)

Explanation: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is responsible for recommending the minimum support prices (MSP) for various agricultural crops. The MSP is intended to ensure farmers receive a fair price for their produce and is determined based on production costs and other factors.

56. The process of scratching, rubbing, and softening the seed coat to make it permeable is known as:

  1. Stratification
  2. Scarification
  3. Vernalization
  4. Rouging
  5. None of the above

Answer: Scarification

Explanation: Scarification is the process of physically or chemically altering the seed coat to facilitate water absorption and promote germination. This technique is used for seeds with hard or impermeable seed coats.

57. Name the process of milk in which fat globules are broken into uniform sizes:

  1. Homogenization
  2. Sterilization
  3. Pasteurization
  4. Podzolization
  5. Creamification

Answer: Homogenization

Explanation: Homogenization is the process of breaking down fat globules in milk into uniform sizes, which helps prevent the separation of cream from the milk. This process ensures a consistent texture and flavor throughout the milk.

58. What is the time for pruning grapes in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh?

  1. January – February and September – October
  2. January – February and August – September
  3. April – May and October – November
  4. June – July and December – January
  5. February – March and August – September

Answer: April – May and October – November

Explanation: In Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh, grapevines are typically pruned in April – May and October – November. This timing helps to manage the growth of the vines and optimize grape production for the following season.

59. Coconut beetle is also known as:

  1. White grub
  2. Rice weevil
  3. Rhinoceros beetle
  4. Coco grub
  5. None of the above

Answer: Rhinoceros beetle

Explanation: The coconut beetle, also known as the rhinoceros beetle (Oryctes rhinoceros), is a major pest of coconut palms. The adult beetles damage the plants by feeding on the crown and soft tissues, leading to reduced yield and plant health issues.

60. When a variety is developed through the protoplasmic fusion of two different species and varieties, it is known as:

  1. Inter-specific hybridization
  2. Inter-generic hybridization
  3. Somatic hybridization
  4. Tissue culture
  5. Genetic engineering

Answer: Somatic hybridization

Explanation: Somatic hybridization involves the fusion of protoplasts (the cellular contents without cell walls) from two different species or varieties to create a new hybrid with characteristics from both parent organisms. This technique is used to combine desirable traits from different plants, especially when traditional hybridization methods are not possible.

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2019-20 Previous Year Paper

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2019-20 Previous Year Paper

What is the average gestation period of a buffalo?

  • 316 ± 5 days
  • 365 ± 5 days
  • 385 ± 5 days
  • 418 ± 5 days
  • 218 ± 5 days

Answer: 316 ± 5 days

Explanation:

The average gestation period of a buffalo is approximately 316 days, with a typical variation of ±5 days. This means that the gestation period generally ranges between 311 and 321 days.

Key Points:

  • Gestation Period: The gestation period is the time from conception to birth during which the fetus develops inside the mother’s womb.
  • Buffalo Gestation: For buffaloes, this period is around 316 days. Variations can occur based on factors such as the breed of the buffalo, its overall health, nutrition, and environmental conditions.
  • Breed Differences: Different breeds of buffaloes may have slight variations in their gestation periods.
  • Importance of Monitoring: Understanding and monitoring the gestation period is crucial for managing the reproductive cycle of buffaloes, ensuring proper care, nutrition, and veterinary attention during pregnancy, and preparing for the birth.

Proper care during the gestation period includes providing adequate nutrition, maintaining good health practices, and regular veterinary check-ups to monitor the health of both the mother and the developing calf. This care helps ensure a healthy pregnancy and successful birth.

2. Which of the following practices reduces soil erosion, evapotranspiration, and the kinetic energy impact of raindrops?

  1. Contour bunding
  2. Mixed cropping
  3. Relay cropping
  4. Strip cropping
  5. Mulching

Answer: Mulching

Explanation:

Mulching is a practice that involves covering the soil surface with organic or inorganic materials. This technique offers multiple benefits that help reduce soil erosion, evapotranspiration, and the kinetic energy impact of raindrops:

Benefits of Mulching:

  1. Reduces Soil Erosion:
    • Protection from Rain Impact: Mulch acts as a protective layer that absorbs the impact of raindrops, preventing them from displacing soil particles and thus reducing erosion.
    • Wind Barrier: Mulch also protects the soil from wind erosion by providing a physical barrier.
  2. Decreases Evapotranspiration:
    • Moisture Retention: By covering the soil, mulch reduces the evaporation of moisture from the soil surface, helping to maintain soil moisture levels.
    • Temperature Regulation: Mulch helps regulate soil temperature by insulating it, which reduces water loss through evapotranspiration.
  3. Reduces Kinetic Energy Impact of Raindrops:
    • Impact Absorption: The mulch layer absorbs and dissipates the kinetic energy of falling raindrops, preventing them from striking the soil directly and causing soil particle detachment.

Types of Mulch:

  • Organic Mulch: Includes materials like straw, grass clippings, leaves, wood chips, and compost. These materials decompose over time, adding organic matter to the soil.
  • Inorganic Mulch: Includes materials like plastic sheeting, gravel, and landscape fabric. These do not decompose and provide long-lasting coverage.

Additional Benefits:

  • Weed Suppression: Mulch can help suppress the growth of weeds by blocking sunlight.
  • Soil Health Improvement: Organic mulches decompose over time, enriching the soil with nutrients and improving soil structure.

By using mulching, farmers and gardeners can effectively protect the soil, conserve water, and enhance the overall health and productivity of their crops and plants.

3: Which of the following medicinal plants is known as a laxative medicinal plant?

  1. Henbane
  2. Guggal
  3. Isabgol
  4. Ashwagandha
  5. Cuscutta

Answer: Isabgol

Explanation:

Isabgol (Plantago ovata), also known as psyllium husk, is renowned for its laxative properties. It is used extensively in traditional and modern medicine to treat constipation and improve bowel movements.

Key Benefits and Uses of Isabgol:

  • Laxative Properties: Isabgol is high in soluble fiber, which absorbs water and adds bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass and thus alleviating constipation.
  • Digestive Health: Regular use of Isabgol can help maintain overall digestive health by promoting regular bowel movements.
  • Cholesterol Management: It helps in lowering cholesterol levels by binding to bile acids and promoting their excretion.
  • Blood Sugar Control: Isabgol can slow down the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, which helps in controlling blood sugar levels.

4: Which entomopathogenic fungus acts as a biological control agent in cotton bollworm?

  1. Beauveria bassiana
  2. Spodoptera lutens
  3. Helicoverpa armigera
  4. Verticillium
  5. None of these

Answer: Beauveria bassiana

Explanation:

Beauveria bassiana is an entomopathogenic fungus used as a biological control agent to manage various insect pests, including the cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera).

Role of Beauveria bassiana in Biological Control:

  • Mode of Action: The fungus infects insects through their cuticle, eventually causing their death. It produces toxins and enzymes that degrade the insect’s exoskeleton and invade its body.
  • Specificity: Beauveria bassiana is effective against a broad range of insect pests but is safe for non-target organisms, including humans and beneficial insects.
  • Sustainable Agriculture: Using this fungus reduces the need for chemical pesticides, promoting environmentally friendly pest management practices.
  • Application: It can be applied as a spore suspension through spraying or dusting onto the crops. Once the spores come in contact with the pest, they germinate and begin the infection process.

By employing Beauveria bassiana, farmers can effectively control cotton bollworm populations, minimizing crop damage and promoting sustainable agricultural practices.

5: The pigment responsible for the yellow color of milk is due to?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Xanthium
  3. Carotenoid
  4. Mineral
  5. Casein

Answer: Carotenoid

Explanation:

Carotenoids are the pigments responsible for the yellow color in milk. These pigments, particularly beta-carotene, come from the cow’s diet, primarily from the green forage they consume. Carotenoids are fat-soluble, and since milk contains fat, the pigments are dissolved in the milk fat, giving it a yellowish hue.

Key Points:

  • Source: Green forages and plants consumed by cows.
  • Fat Solubility: Carotenoids dissolve in the milk fat, contributing to the yellow color.
  • Health Benefits: Carotenoids are also precursors to vitamin A, which is important for vision and immune function.

6: Which of the following nutrients is categorized as a macronutrient under the mineral and nutrition classification?

  1. Zn
  2. Mn
  3. Fe
  4. Cl
  5. K

Answer: K (Potassium)

Explanation:

Potassium (K) is classified as a macronutrient in the context of mineral nutrition. Macronutrients are essential elements required by plants in large amounts for growth and development.

Key Points:

  • Function: Potassium is vital for various plant functions, including enzyme activation, photosynthesis, protein synthesis, and osmoregulation.
  • Abundance: Plants require potassium in larger quantities compared to micronutrients like zinc (Zn), manganese (Mn), and iron (Fe).
  • Soil Fertility: Adequate potassium levels are crucial for soil fertility and crop yield.

7: The process of milk let-down in the udder is due to which hormone?

  1. Estrogen
  2. Prolactin
  3. Oxytocin
  4. Endostrogen
  5. Progesterone

Answer: Oxytocin

Explanation:

Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for the let-down of milk in the udder. It stimulates the smooth muscle cells around the alveoli and ducts in the mammary gland, causing them to contract and release milk into the ducts, making it available for the calf or for milking.

Key Points:

  • Milk Let-Down: Oxytocin triggers the release of milk from the alveoli into the larger milk ducts.
  • Stimulation: The release of oxytocin is often stimulated by the physical act of nursing or milking, as well as the sight, sound, or even thought of the calf.
  • Additional Roles: Oxytocin is also involved in labor, promoting uterine contractions during childbirth.

8: The most common method of propagation in Banana is?

  1. Veneer Grafting
  2. Budding
  3. Seed
  4. Sucker
  5. Layering

Answer: Sucker

Explanation:

Suckers are the most common method of propagating bananas. These are shoots that arise from the base of the banana plant and can be separated and replanted to grow new banana plants.

Key Points:

  • Vegetative Propagation: Suckers allow for the vegetative propagation of bananas, ensuring the genetic uniformity of the new plants with the parent plant.
  • Ease of Use: Suckers are readily available and easy to use for propagation.
  • Rapid Growth: Using suckers ensures quicker establishment and growth compared to seed propagation.

9: Which of the following cattle breeds is utilized for draught purposes while cows are poor yielders?

  1. Sahiwal
  2. Tharparkar
  3. Frieswal
  4. Khillari
  5. Deoni

Answer: Khillari

Explanation:

Khillari cattle are primarily used for draught purposes due to their strength and endurance. The cows of this breed are generally poor milk yielders compared to other breeds.

Key Points:

  • Draught Power: Khillari cattle are well-suited for tasks like plowing and cart pulling due to their robust physique.
  • Regional Suitability: This breed is commonly found in the states of Maharashtra and Karnataka in India, where they are adapted to local conditions.
  • Low Milk Production: While efficient for draught purposes, Khillari cows are not known for high milk production, making them less suitable for dairy farming.

10: The term “crown cleaning” is related to which of the following crops?

  1. Brinjal
  2. Mango
  3. Coconut
  4. Coffee
  5. Pineapple

Answer: Coconut

Explanation:

Crown cleaning is a crucial horticultural practice primarily associated with coconut trees. It involves the removal of dead or diseased fronds, flower stalks, and other debris from the top part of the tree, known as the crown.

Key Points:

  • Health Maintenance: Regular cleaning helps to prevent pest infestations and diseases by removing decaying organic matter where pests and pathogens can thrive.
  • Air Circulation: Improves air circulation within the crown, reducing humidity and the likelihood of fungal infections.
  • Yield Improvement: Promotes better light penetration and air flow, which can enhance the overall health and productivity of the tree.
  • Safety: Reduces the risk of injury from falling fronds and nuts.

11: Aphid is responsible for which disease in tobacco?

  1. Tobacco mosaic virus disease
  2. Tobacco leaf curl disease
  3. Tobacco wilt
  4. Cucumber mosaic virus
  5. None of these

Answer: Cucumber mosaic virus

Explanation:

Aphids are known vectors of the Cucumber mosaic virus (CMV), which affects a wide range of plants, including tobacco.

Key Points:

  • Transmission: Aphids spread CMV by feeding on the sap of infected plants and then transferring the virus to healthy plants.
  • Symptoms: Infected tobacco plants may exhibit stunted growth, leaf mottling, mosaic patterns on leaves, and reduced yields.
  • Management: Controlling aphid populations through integrated pest management (IPM) strategies is critical to prevent the spread of CMV.

12: In which planting system are 4 plants planted in a square where plant-to-plant and row-to-row distances are the same, and plants are planted at right angles to each other?

  1. Triangular
  2. Rectangle
  3. Hexagonal
  4. Diagonal
  5. Square

Answer: Square

Explanation:

The Square planting system ensures that plants are equidistant from each other in both row and column arrangements, forming a square grid pattern.

Key Points:

  • Uniform Spacing: Provides equal spacing between plants, optimizing resource use and minimizing competition for light, nutrients, and water.
  • Irrigation Efficiency: Facilitates uniform irrigation distribution.
  • Ease of Cultivation: Simplifies mechanical operations like weeding, fertilizing, and harvesting.

13:After sheet erosion, minute finger-like structures are formed if not taken care of. What are these called?

  1. Gully
  2. Gulli
  3. Sheet
  4. Rill
  5. Ravines

Answer: Rill

Explanation:

Rill erosion occurs when runoff water creates small, narrow channels in the soil. These rills can expand into larger gullies if not managed.

Key Points:

  • Early Stage: Represents the initial phase of more severe erosion processes.
  • Management Practices: Practices like contour plowing, terracing, and maintaining vegetation cover can help prevent rill formation.
  • Indicators: Rills are early indicators of soil degradation and require immediate attention to prevent further erosion.

14: Which of the following is not correct about honeybees and bee colonies?

  1. Swarming is a natural process
  2. Queen, Worker, Drone are different
  3. Wax moth attacks in larvae stage & not adult stage
  4. Unfertilized egg becomes worker bee
  5. Propolis, Royal Jelly, and Bee Venom are by-products of bees

Answer: Unfertilized egg becomes worker bee

Explanation:

In a honeybee colony, unfertilized eggs develop into drones (male bees), while fertilized eggs develop into worker bees or queens.

Key Points:

  • Swarming: A natural reproductive process where a new queen and a portion of the worker bees leave the colony to form a new hive.
  • Castes: The three main castes are the queen (reproductive female), worker (non-reproductive female), and drone (male).
  • Wax Moth: Larvae of the wax moth damage the hive by feeding on wax, pollen, and other hive materials.
  • By-products: Honeybees produce various by-products such as honey, propolis, royal jelly, and bee venom, each with unique uses.

15: The guava pest that deposits eggs on the soft skin of ripening fruit, with maggots boring into the fruit and feeding on the soft pulp, is which of the following?

  1. Fruit fly
  2. Mealy bug
  3. White aphid
  4. White flies
  5. Thrips

Answer: Fruit fly

Explanation:

Fruit flies (e.g., Bactrocera dorsalis) are notorious pests of guava and other fruits. The adult female fruit fly lays eggs on the surface of the fruit, and the emerging larvae (maggots) bore into the fruit.

Key Points:

  • Egg Laying: Female fruit flies lay eggs on the soft skin of ripening fruits.
  • Maggot Infestation: The larvae bore into the fruit, feeding on the pulp, which causes the fruit to rot and fall prematurely.
  • Visible Signs: Infested fruits show depressions with dark green punctures. Cutting open an infested fruit reveals the presence of maggots.
  • Control Measures: Integrated pest management (IPM) strategies include using pheromone traps, biological control agents, and proper orchard sanitation to manage fruit fly populations.

16: Name of the vaccine used for Ranikhet?

  1. Clostridial
  2. Marek
  3. Canine
  4. Lasota
  5. Circoflex

Answer: Lasota

Explanation:

Lasota is a vaccine used for the prevention of Newcastle Disease (Ranikhet) in poultry. This disease is highly contagious and affects the respiratory, nervous, and digestive systems of birds.

Key Points:

  • Disease Prevention: Lasota vaccine helps in developing immunity against Newcastle Disease.
  • Administration: It can be administered through drinking water, eye drops, or intranasally.
  • Importance: Regular vaccination with Lasota is crucial for maintaining the health and productivity of poultry flocks.

17: Removal of the male bud in banana is called?

  1. Disbudding
  2. Dehorning
  3. Denavelling
  4. Desuckering
  5. None of these

Answer: Denavelling

Explanation:

Denavelling refers to the removal of the male bud in banana plants. This practice is undertaken to improve the quality and size of the fruit bunch.

Key Points:

  • Quality Improvement: Removal of the male bud redirects the plant’s nutrients to the developing fruits, enhancing their growth and size.
  • Disease Prevention: Helps in reducing the risk of pest and disease infestations that might affect the male bud.
  • Method: The male bud is cut off after the last hand of bananas has formed.

18: Name the grape training system where they are connected with each other?

  1. Kniffin
  2. Bower
  3. Skipping
  4. Telephone
  5. Pergola

Answer: Telephone

Explanation:

The Telephone training system for grapes involves training vines on a structure where the wires are set up in a manner that resembles a telephone system, with wires running parallel and connected to each other.

Key Points:

  • Structure: Wires are set horizontally and are well-supported, allowing vines to be trained along them.
  • Advantages: This system provides good air circulation and light penetration, which is essential for the healthy growth of grapevines and fruit quality.
  • Management: Easier to manage the canopy and harvest the fruits.

19: Which breed of goat has the highest lactation length?

  1. Barbari
  2. Pantza
  3. Beetle
  4. Sirohi
  5. Jamunapari

Answer: Jamunapari

Explanation:

Jamunapari goats are known for their long lactation period, making them highly valuable for milk production.

Key Points:

  • Lactation Length: Jamunapari goats have a lactation period of around 250 to 300 days.
  • Milk Yield: They produce a significant amount of milk, often used for dairy purposes.
  • Physical Characteristics: These goats are large, with a distinctive Roman nose and long ears.

20: What is the isolation distance required for foundation seed production of okra?

  1. 1000m
  2. 800m
  3. 400m
  4. 650m
  5. 1600m

Answer: 400m

Explanation:

The isolation distance for foundation seed production of okra is set at 400 meters to prevent cross-pollination and maintain genetic purity.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: Isolation distances ensure that the foundation seeds remain true to type and are not contaminated by pollen from other varieties.
  • Pollination Control: Okra is mainly self-pollinated but can have some cross-pollination, hence the need for adequate isolation.
  • Seed Quality: Maintaining the specified isolation distance helps in producing high-quality seeds that are genetically uniform.

21: Stubble sprout to form the next new crop is known as?

  1. Ratooning
  2. Ley Cropping
  3. Mulching
  4. Chocking
  5. Cutting

Answer: Ratooning

Explanation:

Ratooning is the agricultural practice where new shoots, or ratoons, grow from the remaining stubble of the previous crop. This method is commonly used in crops like sugarcane, rice, and some types of vegetables.

Key Points:

  • Sustainability: Ratooning helps in reducing the cost of seed and labor as it utilizes the remaining stubble.
  • Crop Management: The new crop grows from the root system of the old crop, often resulting in a quicker establishment.
  • Yield: Ratooning can lead to a decrease in yield over successive cycles due to reduced vigor of the new shoots.

22: Under which given pest, BT cotton shows resistance to?

  1. White Fly
  2. Aphid
  3. Bollworm
  4. Mites
  5. Thrips

Answer: Bollworm

Explanation:

BT cotton is genetically modified to express a toxin from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (BT) that targets and kills certain pests, specifically the bollworm.

Key Points:

  • Pest Control: The BT toxin disrupts the digestive system of the bollworm, making it effective in controlling this major pest.
  • Benefits: Reduces the need for chemical insecticides and helps in increasing crop yields.
  • Target Pests: While BT cotton primarily targets bollworms, it may not be effective against other pests like whiteflies, aphids, or mites.

23:Under which category, based on landholding, are small farmers classified?

  1. <1Ha
  2. 1-2Ha
  3. 2-4Ha
  4. 4-10Ha

  5. 10Ha

Answer: 1-2Ha

Explanation:

Small farmers are typically classified based on their landholding size. In many countries, including India, small farmers are those who own land ranging from 1 to 2 hectares.

Key Points:

  • Classification: This classification helps in the allocation of resources, subsidies, and support programs tailored to the needs of small-scale farmers.
  • Support: Small farmers often receive special attention in agricultural policies due to their limited land and resources.
  • Challenges: They may face challenges such as lower yields and limited access to modern technology and markets.

24: The Vertisol order soil is found in maximum quantity in which state?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh
  5. Karnataka

Answer: Maharashtra

Explanation:

Vertisols are a type of soil known for their high clay content, which causes them to shrink and swell with changes in moisture. They are found in significant quantities in the state of Maharashtra.

Key Points:

  • Characteristics: Vertisols are fertile and suitable for growing crops like cotton, soybean, and sorghum.
  • Land Management: Their expansive nature requires careful land management practices to prevent problems related to soil swelling and shrinking.
  • Distribution: Besides Maharashtra, Vertisols are also found in other parts of India, including Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka.

25: White muscardine disease is related to which of the following?

  1. Sheep & Goat
  2. Silkworm
  3. Cattle
  4. Poultry
  5. Cattle

Answer: Silkworm

Explanation:

White muscardine disease is a fungal disease affecting silkworms. It is caused by the fungus Beauveria bassiana and leads to the death of silkworms, affecting silk production.

Key Points:

  • Symptoms: Infected silkworms exhibit white, powdery fungal growth on their bodies.
  • Management: Control measures include maintaining hygienic rearing conditions and using biological control agents.
  • Economic Impact: This disease can significantly impact silk production and quality.

26: Which of the following is the initiative taken by the government for the electronic trading platform for farmers to sell their produce and get fair prices?

  1. AMI
  2. E-choupal
  3. eNAM
  4. APMC
  5. None of these

Answer: eNAM

Explanation:

eNAM (National Agricultural Market) is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at creating an electronic trading platform for farmers. This platform facilitates the sale of agricultural produce and aims to ensure fair prices for farmers.

Key Points:

  • Objective: eNAM aims to integrate existing APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) markets into a single nationwide network.
  • Features: Provides farmers with access to better market prices and reduces the role of middlemen.
  • Benefits: Enhances transparency in trading and enables farmers to receive better prices for their produce through real-time market information and electronic trading.

27: Name the disease of rose where greyish white powdery patches are seen on tender leaves and flower buds, mature leaves get malformed, flower buds fail to open, and the plant ultimately shows a wilted appearance.

  1. Rust
  2. Downy mildew
  3. Powdery mildew
  4. Rust
  5. BLB

Answer: Powdery Mildew

Explanation:

Powdery mildew is a fungal disease that affects roses and other plants. It is characterized by the presence of greyish-white powdery patches on leaves, stems, and flower buds.

Key Points:

  • Symptoms: Includes powdery white fungal growth on young leaves and buds, distorted and malformed leaves, and buds that fail to open. In severe cases, the plant may exhibit wilting.
  • Control Measures: Can include the use of fungicides, improving air circulation around plants, and removing affected plant parts.
  • Environment: Thrives in warm, dry environments with high humidity.

28: Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in pigs?

  1. Pneumonia
  2. Bacillus
  3. Anthrax
  4. Septicemia
  5. Coccidiosis

Answer: Coccidiosis

Explanation:

Coccidiosis is not a bacterial disease but a parasitic infection caused by protozoa (coccidia). The other options listed are bacterial diseases affecting pigs.

Key Points:

  • Pneumonia: Often caused by bacterial infections such as Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia.
  • Bacillus: Refers to infections caused by bacteria of the genus Bacillus, though not specific in this context, Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax.
  • Anthrax: A serious bacterial disease caused by Bacillus anthracis.
  • Septicemia: A systemic bacterial infection leading to sepsis.
  • Coccidiosis: Caused by protozoan parasites, leading to diarrhea and other symptoms in pigs.

29: The term “pulsing” is related to?

  1. Pulse processing
  2. Apple processing
  3. Processing of flowers
  4. Fruit processing
  5. Cereal storage

Answer: Processing of flowers

Explanation:

Pulsing refers to a process used in the processing of flowers to extend their freshness and improve their vase life.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: The pulsing process involves treating flowers with a solution of water and preservatives to help them absorb water and nutrients more efficiently.
  • Benefits: Enhances flower longevity, maintains quality, and helps flowers recover from transport stress.
  • Process: Typically involves a short-term treatment in a preservative solution before the flowers are placed in vases or further processed.

30: According to various agro-climatic regions, which one of the following is categorized under tropical fruit?

  1. Pear
  2. Papaya
  3. Almond
  4. Apple
  5. Plum

Answer: Papaya

Explanation:

Papaya is classified as a tropical fruit, thriving in warm, tropical climates.

Key Points:

  • Climate: Requires consistently warm temperatures and is sensitive to frost.
  • Growth: Grows well in tropical and subtropical regions, with high humidity and rainfall.
  • Other Fruits: Pears, apples, and plums are typically temperate fruits and do not grow well in tropical climates.

31: What is the botanical name of the pomegranate?

  1. Mangifera indica
  2. Prunus persica
  3. Musa paradisiaca
  4. Malus domestica
  5. Punica granatum

Answer: Punica granatum

Explanation:

The botanical name for the pomegranate is Punica granatum.

Key Points:

  • Classification: Belongs to the family Lythraceae.
  • Description: A fruit-bearing shrub or small tree known for its red, fleshy fruits with numerous seeds.
  • Cultivation: Grows well in arid and semi-arid regions with well-drained soil.

32: The blue color tag is used for which category of seed under the seed production/generation system?

  1. Certified
  2. Foundation
  3. Registered
  4. Breeder
  5. Nucleus seed

Answer: Certified

Explanation:

The blue color tag is used for Certified seeds in the seed production system.

Key Points:

  • Certification: Certified seeds meet the quality standards set by the seed certification agency.
  • Purpose: Ensures that seeds are true-to-type, free from disease, and meet specific genetic and physical standards.
  • Tagging: Color-coded tags help in the easy identification and verification of seed categories.

33: Which mango variety is known for irregular bearing?

  1. Totapari
  2. Amrapali
  3. Neelum
  4. Kesar
  5. Himsagar

Answer: Kesar

Explanation:

The Kesar mango variety is known for its irregular bearing habits.

Key Points:

  • Irregular Bearing: This refers to the tendency of the tree to produce fruit in an uneven or non-consistent manner across different years.
  • Characteristics: Despite its irregular bearing, Kesar mangoes are valued for their sweet taste and aromatic flavor.
  • Cultivation: Requires specific climatic conditions and careful management to optimize fruit production.

34: Which sheep breed from northwest India is known for its best quality white wool?

  1. Gaddi
  2. Magra
  3. Gurez
  4. Chanthangi
  5. Surti

Answer: Magra

Explanation:

The Magra sheep breed from northwest India is renowned for producing high-quality white wool.

Key Points:

  • Wool Quality: Magra sheep are specifically valued for their fine and high-quality wool.
  • Region: Primarily found in the states of Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat.
  • Use: The wool is used in making various woolen products and has significant commercial value.

35: A zone within the Earth that restricts the flow of groundwater from one aquifer to another is called?

  1. Aquifer
  2. Aquifuse
  3. Aquitard
  4. Aquiflude
  5. Perch aquifer

Answer: Aquitard

Explanation:

An Aquitard is a geological formation that restricts the flow of groundwater between aquifers.

Key Points:

  • Function: Acts as a barrier to groundwater movement, preventing the easy flow of water between aquifers.
  • Composition: Typically composed of materials with low permeability, such as clay or silt.
  • Importance: Understanding aquitards helps in managing groundwater resources and preventing contamination spread.

36: The symptoms of Sorghum shoot fly are mainly seen in which part of the plant?

  1. Chlorosis followed by Necrosis
  2. Yellowing of leaves from tip downwards
  3. Leaves fold longitudinally, and a larva remains inside
  4. Feed on green tissues of the leaves and leaves become whitish papery
  5. The larva cuts the growing point, resulting in wilting and drying of the central leaf

Answer: The larva cuts the growing point, resulting in wilting and drying of the central leaf

Explanation:

Sorghum shoot fly larvae typically damage the growing point of the sorghum plant, causing wilting and drying of the central leaf.

Key Points:

  • Symptoms: Damage is evident as the central leaf dries out, leading to stunted growth and reduced yield.
  • Management: Includes using resistant varieties, proper planting techniques, and chemical control when necessary.
  • Impact: Can significantly affect the plant’s growth and overall productivity.

37: Which oil cake is used to prevent predatory fishes?

  1. Cotton cake
  2. Neem oil cake
  3. Sesamum
  4. Groundnut cake
  5. Mahua cake

Answer: Mahua cake

Explanation:

Mahua cake is used in aquaculture to prevent predatory fishes.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: Mahua cake is used to deter predatory fish by its natural properties that act as a repellent.
  • Composition: Derived from the seeds of the Mahua tree (Madhuca longifolia).
  • Application: Used in fish ponds to help protect non-predatory fish species and improve the overall health of the aquaculture system.

38: What is the name of the trap used in Integrated Pest Management (IPM) to lure male insects?

  1. Pheromone trap
  2. Sticky traps
  3. Light trap
  4. Glue traps
  5. None of the above

Answer: Pheromone trap

Explanation:

A pheromone trap is used in Integrated Pest Management (IPM) to attract and capture male insects by mimicking the natural sex pheromones they use to find mates.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: Helps in monitoring pest populations and reducing pest numbers by disrupting mating.
  • Function: Attracts specific male insects, allowing for targeted control measures.
  • Usage: Widely used in controlling various pests, including moths and beetles.

39: Which of the following refers to the zone of illuviation?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. R
  4. C
  5. O

Answer: B

Explanation:

The B horizon of soil is known as the zone of illuviation. This is where materials leached from the upper layers (like minerals and organic matter) accumulate.

Key Points:

  • Illuviation: The process of deposition of materials leached from above horizons.
  • Characteristics: Often contains accumulated minerals and organic materials.
  • Soil Profile: The B horizon is typically found below the A horizon (topsoil) and above the C horizon (parent material).

40: When soil moisture decreases to the wilting point, where water is held tightly by soil particles, the condition is known as?

  1. Hygroscopic coefficient
  2. Wilting point
  3. Permanent wilting point
  4. Saturation point
  5. None of these

Answer: Hygroscopic coefficient

Explanation:

The hygroscopic coefficient refers to the soil moisture content at which water is held tightly by soil particles and is no longer available to plants.

Key Points:

  • Hygroscopic Moisture: The amount of water in the soil that is bound tightly to soil particles and cannot be easily extracted by plants.
  • Wilting Point: Refers to the moisture level at which plants can no longer extract sufficient water, leading to wilting.
  • Permanent Wilting Point: The moisture level at which plants suffer irreversible wilting.

41: What is the process/act of mating in sheep known as?

  1. Bridging
  2. Kidding
  3. Farrowing
  4. Tupping
  5. None of these

Answer: Tupping

Explanation:

Tupping is the term used for the mating process in sheep.

Key Points:

  • Tupping: Involves the ram (male sheep) mating with the ewe (female sheep).
  • Reproduction: Essential for breeding and flock management.
  • Other Terms:
    • Kidding: The birthing process in goats.
    • Farrowing: The birthing process in pigs.

42: Which state in India has the highest area under forest?

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Sikkim
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Arunachal Pradesh
  5. Chhattisgarh

Answer: Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area among Indian states.

Key Points:

  • Forest Area: Madhya Pradesh is known for its extensive forest cover and diverse forest types.
  • Biodiversity: Home to various wildlife species and important forest ecosystems.
  • Conservation: Efforts in forest management and conservation are significant in this state.

43: What is the minimum germination percentage required for wheat?

  1. 100
  2. 65
  3. 70
  4. 85
  5. 80

Answer: 85

Explanation:

The minimum germination percentage required for wheat is typically 85%.

Key Points:

  • Germination Percentage: Reflects the ability of seeds to germinate and grow into healthy plants.
  • Importance: Ensures that the seed lot is viable and will produce a sufficient number of plants.
  • Standards: Adhering to this standard helps achieve good crop establishment and yield.

44: The area designed for the feeding of lambs, calves, and piglets on the farm but not used for adults is known as?

  1. Conventional dairy barn
  2. Traditional dairy barn
  3. Cow feed shed
  4. Loose housing system
  5. Creep

Answer: Creep

Explanation:

The area designed for the feeding of young animals such as lambs, calves, and piglets is known as a creep.

Key Points:

  • Creep Feeding: Allows young animals to access special feed that is not available to adults.
  • Purpose: Ensures that young animals receive adequate nutrition to support their growth and development.
  • Design: Typically includes features to prevent adult animals from accessing the feed.

45: The Green Revolution led to increased production of food grains, primarily paddy and wheat. The Golden Revolution similarly focused on the production of which of the following?

  1. Fruits
  2. Vegetables
  3. Cereals
  4. Pulses
  5. Meat

Answer: Fruits

Explanation:

The Golden Revolution is associated with the increased production of fruits.

Key Points:

  • Objective: Aimed to boost fruit production and enhance fruit cultivation practices.
  • Impact: Contributed to increased availability and improved quality of fruits in India.
  • Comparison: Similar to the Green Revolution’s impact on cereals, the Golden Revolution focused on fruit production.

46: New leaves of a plant showing yellow symptoms while veins remain green are indicative of a deficiency in which nutrient?

  1. Manganese
  2. Magnesium
  3. Iron
  4. Zinc
  5. Sulphur

Answer: Iron

Explanation:

Iron deficiency causes new leaves to turn yellow while the veins remain green, a condition known as interveinal chlorosis.

Key Points:

  • Iron Deficiency: Affects chlorophyll production, leading to yellowing of young leaves.
  • Symptoms: Includes yellowing between veins with the veins themselves remaining green.
  • Correction: Can be addressed with iron-containing fertilizers or soil amendments.

47: What is the term for a young female pig who has not yet given birth to any offspring?

  1. Sow
  2. Lamb
  3. Doe
  4. Swine
  5. Spayed

Answer: Sow

Explanation:

A young female pig that has not yet given birth is called a sow.

Key Points:

  • Sow: Refers to an adult female pig, whether she has given birth or not.
  • Other Terms:
    • Lamb: A young sheep.
    • Doe: A female goat.
    • Swine: General term for pigs.
    • Spayed: Refers to an animal that has been surgically altered to prevent reproduction.

48: The term “lay farming” is related to?

  1. Layer birds are reared in closed space
  2. Leguminous pastures with grain crops
  3. More layer birds in limited space
  4. Rearing of poultry animals
  5. Layering in horticulture

Answer: Leguminous pastures with grain crops

Explanation:

Lay farming refers to the practice of integrating leguminous pastures with grain crops.

Key Points:

  • Lay Farming: Involves growing legumes and grains together to improve soil fertility and provide balanced forage.
  • Benefits: Enhances soil quality, improves crop yields, and provides diverse nutrition for livestock.
  • Practices: Includes crop rotation and intercropping strategies to optimize land use and productivity.

49: What is the type of silkworm that breeds only once a year?

  1. Univoltine species
  2. Bivoltine species
  3. Wild Univoltine silkworm of Assam forest
  4. Multivoltine species
  5. None of these

Answer: Univoltine species

Explanation:

Univoltine species of silkworms breed only once a year.

Key Points:

  • Univoltine: Refers to organisms that have a single generation per year.
  • Lifecycle: Typically adapted to environments with distinct seasonal variations.
  • Example: Certain types of wild silkworms in temperate regions.

50: Which of the following schemes has been renamed as NRLM?

  1. Adarsh Gram Yojna
  2. Gram Sadak Yojna
  3. Swarnajayanti Swarojgar Yojna
  4. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
  5. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

Answer: Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

Explanation:

The Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana has been renamed as the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).

Key Points:

  • Objective: Aims to improve rural livelihoods through enhanced economic activities and self-employment opportunities.
  • Focus: Provides financial support and training to rural poor and helps in the formation of self-help groups.
  • Renaming: Reflects a broader focus and updated approach in rural development.

51: In which grafting method is the rootstock debarked 45 cm from the ground level, two slopes are cut, and a wedge-shaped scion is inserted?

  1. Veneer grafting
  2. Wedge grafting
  3. Inside grafting
  4. Chip budding
  5. Inarching

Answer: Wedge grafting

Explanation:

Wedge grafting involves debarking the rootstock, making two sloping cuts, and inserting a wedge-shaped scion.

Key Points:

  • Technique: Rootstock and scion are prepared with matching sloping cuts to ensure a good fit.
  • Application: Used for grafting trees and shrubs where the rootstock is relatively thick.
  • Advantages: Ensures a strong union and successful grafting when properly executed.

52: Mating of wider degree relation, not closer, resulting in uniformity, is known as?

  1. Out crossing
  2. Back crossing
  3. Line breeding
  4. Inbreeding
  5. Cross breeding

Answer: Line breeding

Explanation:

Line breeding involves mating individuals of a wider degree of relation, focusing on maintaining desired traits and achieving uniformity.

Key Points:

  • Objective: To concentrate desirable traits within a breeding line while avoiding the risks associated with close inbreeding.
  • Benefits: Helps in maintaining genetic stability and uniformity in offspring.
  • Application: Common in livestock and plant breeding programs to enhance specific traits.

53: Which scientific research institution is established to provide vocational training to farmers and field-level extension workers?

  1. KVK
  2. Small farmer org
  3. FPO
  4. Tribal area development agency
  5. SHG

Answer: KVK

Explanation:

KVK (Krishi Vigyan Kendra) is established to provide vocational training and support to farmers and field-level extension workers.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: To disseminate agricultural knowledge, improve farming practices, and provide hands-on training.
  • Services: Includes workshops, demonstrations, and personalized support to address local agricultural challenges.
  • Role: Acts as a bridge between research institutions and the farming community.

54: Which type of emulsion is found in milk?

  1. Oil in oil
  2. Water in oil
  3. Fat in oil
  4. Oil in water
  5. Water in water

Answer: Oil in water

Explanation:

Milk is an oil-in-water emulsion, where fat globules are dispersed in water.

Key Points:

  • Emulsion Type: In this case, the fat (oil) is dispersed in a continuous phase of water.
  • Milk Composition: Contains water, fat, proteins, lactose, and other components in a stable emulsion.
  • Importance: The emulsion affects the texture and appearance of milk and dairy products.

55: Which one of the following is an example of symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Cyanobacteria
  3. Azotobacter
  4. Clostridium
  5. None of these

Answer: Rhizobium

Explanation:

Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms a mutualistic relationship with leguminous plants.

Key Points:

  • Symbiosis: Rhizobium bacteria live in the root nodules of legumes and fix atmospheric nitrogen into a form usable by the plant.
  • Benefit: Enhances soil fertility by increasing nitrogen content.
  • Other Examples: Cyanobacteria (e.g., Nostoc) can also fix nitrogen but are not always in a symbiotic relationship with plants.

56: What is the study and science for aesthetic and shady plantation for decoration/ornamental purposes?

  1. Arboriculture
  2. Viticulture
  3. Landscape horticulture
  4. Silviculture
  5. Moriculture

Answer: Landscape horticulture

Explanation:

Landscape horticulture involves the study and practice of designing and maintaining aesthetically pleasing and functional outdoor spaces.

Key Points:

  • Focus: Includes the selection, planting, and maintenance of trees, shrubs, flowers, and other ornamental plants.
  • Objective: Aims to create visually appealing and functional landscapes for various uses.
  • Application: Used in parks, gardens, and other public and private spaces.

57: At what interval is the FMD vaccine given to sheep?

  1. 3 months
  2. 4 months
  3. 5 months
  4. 6 months
  5. 12 months

Answer: 6 months

Explanation:

The FMD (Foot and Mouth Disease) vaccine is typically administered to sheep every 6 months.

Key Points:

  • Vaccination Schedule: Regular vaccination is crucial for preventing outbreaks of FMD.
  • Importance: Helps in maintaining herd health and preventing the spread of the disease.

58: Sodium deficiency in cows causes what symptoms and conditions?

  1. Pateint parenesis
  2. Dehydration and fluid reduction
  3. Milk reduction
  4. Appetite loss
  5. Milk fever

Answer: Dehydration and fluid reduction

Explanation:

Sodium deficiency in cows can lead to dehydration and fluid reduction.

Key Points:

  • Symptoms: Includes reduced appetite, weight loss, and impaired bodily functions.
  • Importance: Sodium is crucial for maintaining fluid balance and proper cell function.
  • Management: Ensuring adequate salt or sodium intake in the diet helps prevent deficiency.

59: The instrument used to measure soil strength is known as?

  1. Penetrometer
  2. Dynamometer
  3. Hydrometer
  4. Tensiometer
  5. Pycnometer

Answer: Penetrometer

Explanation:

A penetrometer is used to measure soil strength, particularly the resistance of soil to penetration.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: Helps assess soil compaction and determine its suitability for planting and other agricultural activities.
  • Usage: Provides data on soil density and structural properties.
  • Other Instruments:
    • Dynamometer: Measures force.
    • Hydrometer: Measures liquid density.
    • Tensiometer: Measures soil moisture.

60: What is the feed conversion ratio in broiler chickens?

  1. 1.5 to 1.9
  2. 1.9 to 2.1
  3. 3.2 to 3.9
  4. 2.2 to 2.7
  5. 2.8 to 3.2

Answer: 1.5 to 1.9

Explanation:

The feed conversion ratio (FCR) in broiler chickens typically ranges from 1.5 to 1.9.

Key Points:

  • Feed Conversion Ratio: This ratio indicates the efficiency with which poultry convert feed into body weight.
  • Implication: A lower FCR value represents better efficiency, meaning the broilers require less feed to gain a unit of weight.
  • Optimization: Achieving a low FCR is crucial for cost-effective poultry production and improving profitability.

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2018-19 Previous Year Paper

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2018-19 Previous Year Paper

1: Which among the following insects causes damage inside the stem?

  1. Stem borer
  2. Gall midge
  3. Brown plant hopper
  4. Aphid
  5. Leaf curl

Answer: Stem borer

Explanation:

The stem borer is an insect that damages plants by boring into the stems, causing internal damage.

Key Points:

  • Damage: The larvae of stem borers feed inside the stem, disrupting the plant’s vascular system and weakening it.
  • Symptoms: Visible signs include wilting, stunted growth, and holes in the stem.
  • Control: Management includes using resistant varieties and insecticides, as well as practicing good field sanitation.

2: Based on construction, which among the following is a type of greenhouse?

  1. Wooden framed
  2. Computerized
  3. Cooling Fan pad
  4. Even span
  5. Glass glazing

Answer: Wooden framed

Explanation:

A wooden framed greenhouse is characterized by its wooden structural framework.

Key Points:

  • Construction Type: Wooden frames are traditional and can be used for various types of greenhouses.
  • Other Types:
    • Computerized: Refers to automated systems for managing climate within the greenhouse.
    • Cooling Fan pad: Refers to a specific cooling system, not a construction type.
    • Even span: Refers to a greenhouse design with an even roof span, rather than a construction material.
    • Glass glazing: Refers to the type of covering material, not the frame.

3: Which among the following states has the highest alkaline soil?

  1. Uttar Pradesh (UP)
  2. Gujarat
  3. Punjab
  4. West Bengal
  5. Odisha

Answer: Uttar Pradesh (UP)

Explanation:

Uttar Pradesh (UP) is known for having the highest prevalence of alkaline soils.

Key Points:

  • Alkaline Soil: Soils with a pH greater than 7 are considered alkaline.
  • Impact: Alkaline soils can affect nutrient availability and plant growth.
  • Management: Amending the soil with organic matter and adjusting pH can help in managing alkaline soils.

4: What is the pH of acidic soil?

  1. Less than 5.5
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 11
  5. 12

Answer: Less than 5.5

Explanation:

Acidic soil typically has a pH of less than 5.5.

Key Points:

  • Acidic Soil: Soils with a pH below 6 are considered acidic, with lower values indicating higher acidity.
  • Implications: Acidic soils can affect nutrient availability and require liming to correct pH levels.
  • Range: pH values below 5.5 indicate increasing acidity, which can impact plant growth and soil health.

7: What is the minimum age eligibility criteria to be nominated for the Nari Shakti Puraskar?

  1. Above 30 years
  2. 20 Years
  3. 25 Years
  4. 40 Years
  5. 30 Years

Answer: 30 Years

Explanation:

The Nari Shakti Puraskar is an award that recognizes exceptional contributions by women. The minimum age eligibility for nomination is 30 years.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: The award honors women who have made significant contributions to various fields.
  • Eligibility: Nominees must be at least 30 years old to qualify for the award.

8: What is the RPM of a rotary tiller?

  1. 180-200
  2. 120-150
  3. 200-250
  4. 230-280
  5. 80-120

Answer: 180-200

Explanation:

The typical RPM (Revolutions Per Minute) range for a rotary tiller is 180-200 RPM.

Key Points:

  • RPM Range: Indicates the rotational speed of the tiller blades.
  • Function: Higher RPM helps in effective soil mixing and preparation.
  • Adjustment: The RPM can be adjusted depending on soil conditions and crop requirements.

9: In which type of tillage is 15-30% residue left on the soil surface?

  1. Conventional tillage
  2. Ridge tillage
  3. Mulch tillage
  4. Reduced tillage
  5. No till

Answer: Reduced tillage

Explanation:

Reduced tillage leaves 15-30% of crop residue on the soil surface.

Key Points:

  • Purpose: Helps in conserving soil moisture and reducing erosion.
  • Comparison:
    • Conventional Tillage: Typically involves complete soil preparation with little residue left.
    • Mulch Tillage: Leaves more residue compared to reduced tillage.
    • No Till: Leaves almost all residue on the surface.

10: In which disease does gall formation of the root occur?

  1. Root knot nematode
  2. Bacterial blight
  3. Leaf rust
  4. Powdery mildew
  5. Leaf spot

Answer: Root knot nematode

Explanation:

Root knot nematode causes gall formation on the roots of plants.

Key Points:

  • Disease Description: Root knot nematodes create swellings or galls on plant roots, affecting nutrient and water uptake.
  • Impact: Can lead to reduced plant growth and yield.
  • Management: Includes using resistant plant varieties, crop rotation, and soil treatments.

11: Which among the following is a highly irrigation-sensitive crop?

  1. Cabbage
  2. Red Gram
  3. Wheat
  4. Cotton
  5. Millets

Answer: Cabbage

Detailed Explanation:

Cabbage is a highly irrigation-sensitive crop, meaning it requires consistent and adequate moisture for optimal growth.

  • Water Needs: Cabbage needs regular watering to develop firm heads and avoid stress-induced problems like bolting (premature flowering) or poor head formation.
  • Impact of Irregular Irrigation: Inconsistent water supply can lead to uneven growth, smaller heads, or even crop failure. Cabbage is particularly sensitive because it has shallow roots that do not reach deep soil moisture.
  • Optimal Conditions: Maintaining a consistent moisture level helps ensure good head size and quality. It’s crucial for farmers to manage irrigation effectively, especially during critical growth stages.

 12: Which among the following is a medium to high irrigation-sensitive crop?

  1. Cabbage
  2. Red Gram
  3. Wheat
  4. Cotton
  5. Millets

Answer: Wheat

Detailed Explanation:

Wheat falls into the medium to high irrigation-sensitive category, as it has considerable water requirements throughout its growth cycle.

  • Water Needs: Wheat needs ample water during critical growth phases, such as tillering, flowering, and grain filling. Inadequate water during these stages can lead to reduced yields and poor grain quality.
  • Irrigation Impact: Proper irrigation management is crucial for achieving high yields. Deficient water supply can result in poor kernel development and lower test weights.
  • Optimal Conditions: Wheat benefits from consistent soil moisture but is less sensitive compared to some other crops like cabbage, which require more precise irrigation.

13: As per the covering material, which among the following is a type of greenhouse?

  1. Wooden framed
  2. Computerized
  3. Cooling Fan pad
  4. Even span
  5. Glass glazing

Answer: Glass glazing

Detailed Explanation:

Glass glazing refers to the material used to cover and enclose a greenhouse.

  • Glass Glazing: Provides excellent light transmission, which is crucial for plant growth. Glass greenhouses are often used in commercial settings for high-value crops due to their durability and ability to maintain stable temperatures.
  • Types of Greenhouses:
    • Wooden Framed: Refers to the structural framework of a greenhouse, not the covering material.
    • Computerized: Relates to automated systems for controlling climate conditions inside the greenhouse, not the covering.
    • Cooling Fan Pad: Refers to cooling systems used inside greenhouses to regulate temperature, not the covering.

14: Cankerous spot formation occurs in which among the following diseases?

  1. Bacterial canker
  2. Leaf spot
  3. Root knot nematode
  4. Foot rot
  5. Leaf rust

Answer: Bacterial canker

Detailed Explanation:

Bacterial canker is a disease that causes cankerous spots on various plant tissues.

  • Symptoms: This disease leads to the formation of lesions or galls on stems, branches, and leaves. These cankers often appear as sunken, discolored areas that can eventually cause tissue death.
  • Impact: The disease can severely weaken plants, leading to reduced growth, poor fruit production, and sometimes plant death. Effective management includes pruning affected areas and applying appropriate bactericides.
  • Comparison with Other Diseases:
    • Leaf Spot: Causes spots on leaves but does not typically form cankers.
    • Root Knot Nematode: Causes galls on roots, not cankers on stems.

15: Which among the following nutrient deficiency symptoms shows major veins remain green, top veins become short and slender, and chlorosis on new leaves?

  1. Fe (Iron)
  2. Mn (Manganese)
  3. Cu (Copper)
  4. Bo (Boron)
  5. Zn (Zinc)

Answer: Fe (Iron)

Detailed Explanation:

Iron (Fe) deficiency manifests as interveinal chlorosis, where the spaces between the major veins of new leaves turn yellow, while the veins themselves remain green.

  • Symptoms: The major veins stay green, but the areas between them turn yellow, leading to a distinct pattern of chlorosis. This symptom typically affects younger leaves first because iron is not mobile in plants.
  • Management: Iron deficiency can be addressed through soil amendments like iron sulfate or foliar sprays. Ensuring proper pH and soil conditions can also help alleviate the deficiency.
  • Comparison with Other Nutrients:
    • Manganese: Also causes interveinal chlorosis but typically affects older leaves first.
    • Copper: Causes general chlorosis and leaf curling.
    • Boron: Leads to leaf distortion and poor fruit development.

16: The Nari Shakti Puraskar Yojna guideline was revised in which year?

  1. 2014
  2. 2015
  3. 2016
  4. 2018
  5. 2019

Answer: 2018

Detailed Explanation:

The Nari Shakti Puraskar Yojna guidelines were revised in 2018 to enhance and streamline the process of awarding exceptional contributions by women.

  • Purpose: The revision aimed to update the criteria and procedures to better recognize and honor women’s achievements in various fields.
  • Impact: The updated guidelines ensure that the award process is more inclusive, relevant, and effective in highlighting significant contributions.
  • Previous Versions: Prior revisions were made in earlier years, but the 2018 update was significant for refining the award process.

17: What is the nitrogen content in CAN (Calcium Ammonium Nitrate) fertilizer?

  1. 25
  2. 28
  3. 20
  4. 30
  5. 2

Answer: 25

Detailed Explanation:

Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) is a type of nitrogenous fertilizer with a nitrogen content of approximately 25%.

  • Composition: CAN typically contains a mix of calcium carbonate and ammonium nitrate. The nitrogen content is crucial for plant growth as it promotes lush foliage and overall plant development.
  • Usage: CAN is used to provide essential nitrogen to crops, which helps in achieving optimal growth and yield. It is valued for its ability to improve soil structure and nutrient availability.
  • Comparison: Other nitrogen fertilizers, such as urea or ammonium sulfate, might have different nitrogen contents. For example, urea contains about 46% nitrogen, which is higher than CAN.

18: What is the capacity of a medium-type rural godown?

  1. 1000 mt
  2. 5000 mt
  3. 500, 1000, 2000 mt
  4. 500 mt
  5. 2000 mt

Answer: 500, 1000, 2000 mt

Detailed Explanation:

A medium-type rural godown (warehouse) typically has capacities of 500 mt, 1000 mt, and 2000 mt.

  • Purpose: These storage facilities are designed to store food grains and other agricultural products. The capacity allows for effective storage and management of produce, ensuring it remains in good condition until needed.
  • Functionality: Medium-sized godowns help in managing the supply chain and maintaining food security by providing adequate storage for rural and regional needs.
  • Comparison: Smaller godowns may have capacities around 100 mt, while larger ones can hold up to 5000 mt or more.

19:For how much time period can we store food grain in a rural godown?

  1. 9 months
  2. 11 months
  3. 12 months
  4. 10 months
  5. 6 months

Answer: 10 months

Detailed Explanation:

Food grains can generally be stored in a rural godown for up to 10 months.

  • Storage Duration: The duration of storage depends on various factors such as the type of grain, storage conditions, and pest management. Properly managed storage can help in maintaining the quality of the grains for this period.
  • Conditions: Adequate ventilation, moisture control, and pest management are essential to prevent spoilage and loss during storage.
  • Practical Implications: Ensuring grains are not stored beyond their optimal period helps in minimizing spoilage and maintaining the nutritional value of the food.

20: How much area in percentage is covered under storage in a rural godown?

  1. 75
  2. 85
  3. 90
  4. 60
  5. 50

Answer: 90

Detailed Explanation:

In a rural godown, approximately 90% of the area is covered for storage.

  • Utilization: This high percentage indicates efficient use of the available space for storing agricultural produce. It ensures maximum storage capacity and minimizes wastage of space.
  • Design: The design of rural godowns aims to optimize space utilization to accommodate large quantities of grains and other products.
  • Comparison: Other uses of the godown, such as office space or maintenance areas, would account for the remaining percentage.

21: What is the premium rate for commercial/horticultural crops under PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 1.5
  4. 1.25
  5. 1

Answer: 5

Detailed Explanation:

Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), the premium rate for commercial and horticultural crops is 5%.

  • Purpose: This scheme provides insurance coverage to farmers against crop losses due to various risks, including natural calamities, pests, and diseases. The premium rate reflects the cost of providing this insurance.
  • Coverage: The scheme aims to provide financial support to farmers and help stabilize their income in case of crop failure.
  • Comparison: The premium rates can vary based on the type of crop and the risk involved. For other crops, such as food grains, the premium rates might be lower.

22: What is the premium rate for annual commercial/horticultural crops under PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 1.5
  4. 1.25
  5. 1

Answer: 5

Detailed Explanation:

Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), the premium rate for annual commercial and horticultural crops is 5%.

  • Purpose: This premium rate is set to provide insurance coverage against various risks such as natural disasters, pests, and diseases for commercial and horticultural crops. It helps in mitigating financial losses for farmers.
  • Coverage: The scheme aims to support farmers by providing compensation for crop losses, thus stabilizing their income.
  • Comparison: The premium rates for different types of crops can vary based on risk levels. For example, food crops typically have lower premium rates compared to commercial and horticultural crops.

23: Rotting of stem at ground level disease is known as:

  1. Foot rot
  2. Wilt
  3. Leaf curl
  4. Molya disease
  5. Leaf rust

Answer: Foot rot

Detailed Explanation:

Foot rot is a disease characterized by the rotting of the stem at ground level.

  • Symptoms: This disease affects the base of the plant, causing wilting, discoloration, and decay. It can lead to significant yield loss if not managed properly.
  • Causes: Foot rot is often caused by soil-borne fungi or bacteria that infect the plant’s lower stem and roots.
  • Management: Control measures include crop rotation, improving soil drainage, and using resistant plant varieties.

24: Pegging and pod formation stage has occurred in which among the following crop:

  1. Groundnut
  2. Sesame
  3. Wheat
  4. Mustard
  5. Soyabean

Answer: Groundnut

Detailed Explanation:

Groundnut (or peanut) is a leguminous crop where the pegging and pod formation stages are critical parts of its development cycle.

  • Pegging: This is the process where the flower stalk elongates and grows downward into the soil, eventually developing into a pod.
  • Pod Formation: After pegging, the pods form underground, where they mature and develop the seeds.
  • Importance: Understanding these stages is crucial for managing irrigation, fertilization, and pest control to optimize yield.

25: Which among the following crops has the lowest seed replacement ratio?

  1. Pearl millet
  2. Wheat
  3. Groundnut
  4. Sunflower
  5. Sugarcane

Answer: Groundnut

Detailed Explanation:

Groundnut typically has the lowest seed replacement ratio among the crops listed.

  • Seed Replacement Ratio (SRR): SRR indicates the proportion of seed used in a crop cycle compared to the total area under cultivation. A lower SRR means less frequent use of new seeds.
  • Factors: This low ratio in groundnut is due to its ability to maintain seed quality over multiple planting cycles and the cost-effectiveness of using saved seeds.
  • Comparison: Crops like sunflower and sugarcane usually have higher SRR due to higher rates of seed replacement for better yields and disease management.

26: E-nam was launched in which year?

  1. 2014
  2. 2012
  3. 2016
  4. 2013
  5. 2011

Answer: 2016

Detailed Explanation:

eNAM (National Agriculture Market) was launched in 2016.

  • Purpose: eNAM is an online trading platform aimed at improving the efficiency of agricultural markets by providing a single-window access to the trading of agricultural commodities.
  • Features: It helps in price discovery, transparency, and better market access for farmers, reducing their dependence on middlemen.
  • Impact: The platform aims to create a unified national market and enhance the efficiency of agricultural supply chains.

27: What is the premium rate for rabi crops under PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 1.5
  4. 1.25
  5. 1

Answer: 1.5

Detailed Explanation:

Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), the premium rate for rabi crops is 1.5%.

  • Purpose: This premium rate is set for the insurance coverage of rabi crops against losses due to various factors like weather conditions, pests, and diseases.
  • Coverage: The scheme provides financial assistance to farmers in case of crop failure, helping them recover losses and maintain income stability.
  • Comparison: Premium rates can vary based on the type of crop, season, and risk factors involved. For instance, kharif crops generally have a different premium rate compared to rabi crops.

28: Which among the following propagation methods is used in droopy/viney plants?

  1. Serpentine layering
  2. Tip layering
  3. Air layering
  4. Trench layering
  5. Mound layering

Answer: Serpentine layering

Detailed Explanation:

Serpentine Layering is particularly effective for droopy or viney plants.

  • Method: In serpentine layering, a vine or droopy stem is partially buried in the soil at several points along its length while still attached to the parent plant. Each buried segment can develop roots, and new plants are formed at these points.
  • Advantages: This method is ideal for plants that naturally produce long, flexible stems that can be easily manipulated into the soil.
  • Common Uses: It is used for various types of viney plants like some varieties of grapes and blackberries.

29: Banana is exported to the Gulf area. India exports the maximum banana to which among the following Arabian countries?

  1. Kuwait
  2. Saudi Arabia
  3. Qatar
  4. Oman
  5. Bahrain

Answer: Saudi Arabia

Detailed Explanation:

Saudi Arabia is the largest importer of bananas from India among the listed Arabian countries.

  • Export Trends: India has a significant banana export industry, with Saudi Arabia being a major destination due to its high demand for fresh fruits.
  • Trade Relations: The trade agreements and logistical factors contribute to Saudi Arabia being a key market for Indian bananas.

30: Which among the following crops has CRI (Critical Reproductive Irrigation) as its critical irrigation stage?

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Bajra
  5. Mustard

Answer: Wheat

Detailed Explanation:

Wheat requires critical reproductive irrigation (CRI) during its growth stages.

  • CRI: For wheat, CRI refers to the period during which the crop requires sufficient water for optimal grain development. This stage is crucial for ensuring high yields and quality.
  • Timing: Proper irrigation during this stage helps in preventing stress and improving grain formation.

31: PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana) was started in which year?

  1. 2016
  2. 2014
  3. 2015
  4. 2012
  5. 2011

Answer: 2016

Detailed Explanation:

PMFBY was launched in 2016.

  • Objective: The scheme was introduced to provide comprehensive crop insurance coverage to farmers against crop loss due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases.
  • Features: It aims to stabilize farmers’ income and provide financial support in the event of crop failures.

32: Which among the following horticulture crops has the lowest production?

  1. Fruit
  2. Vegetable
  3. Medicinal
  4. Plantation
  5. Spices

Answer: Medicinal

Detailed Explanation:

Medicinal crops generally have lower production levels compared to other horticultural crops.

  • Production Factors: Factors such as limited cultivation area, specialized growing conditions, and lower commercial demand contribute to the lower production of medicinal crops.
  • Comparison: Fruits, vegetables, plantation crops, and spices often have higher production volumes due to their broader cultivation areas and higher consumer demand.

33: Which among the following horticulture crops has the lowest productivity?

  1. Fruit
  2. Vegetable
  3. Medicinal
  4. Plantation
  5. Spices

Answer: Medicinal

Detailed Explanation:

Medicinal crops also have the lowest productivity compared to other horticultural crops.

  • Productivity Factors: The productivity of medicinal crops can be lower due to factors such as specialized growth requirements, slower growth rates, and less intensive cultivation practices.
  • Comparison: Fruits, vegetables, plantation crops, and spices are generally more productive due to higher yields and more established cultivation practices.

34: Which among the following horticulture crops has the highest productivity?

  1. Fruit
  2. Vegetable
  3. Medicinal
  4. Plantation
  5. Spices

Answer: Vegetable

Detailed Explanation:

  • Productivity: Vegetables typically have the highest productivity because they are harvested multiple times a year compared to other horticultural crops. Their growth cycles are shorter, and they often yield more produce per unit area.
  • Cultivation: Modern agricultural practices such as high-density planting, improved seed varieties, and efficient pest and disease management contribute to high yields. Vegetables are cultivated in a range of environments, including controlled greenhouses and open fields, optimizing their productivity.
  • Comparison:
    • Fruits generally have a longer growing season and may take several years to start producing a significant yield.
    • Medicinal crops often have specialized growing requirements and may not be cultivated on a large scale.
    • Plantation crops like tea, coffee, and rubber have long maturation periods and lower annual productivity per unit area.
    • Spices such as black pepper, cardamom, and saffron have lower yields compared to vegetables due to their specific climatic and soil requirements.

35: Which institute has developed the Goat pox vaccine?

  1. IVRI (Indian Veterinary Research Institute)
  2. NDRI (National Dairy Research Institute)
  3. Goat Research Institute
  4. NDDB (National Dairy Development Board)
  5. CARI (Central Avian Research Institute)

Answer: IVRI

Detailed Explanation:

  • IVRI is a premier research institute in India focused on veterinary science. It is known for developing various vaccines for livestock diseases.
  • Goat pox is a viral disease that affects goats, causing fever, pustules, and lesions. IVRI developed the vaccine to control and prevent this disease, helping to protect goat populations and improve livestock health.
  • Significance: The development of vaccines by IVRI plays a crucial role in enhancing animal health and productivity. It helps farmers manage and reduce the impact of diseases on their livestock.

36: What is the cost of reclamation of acidic soils under RKVY (Rural Infrastructure Development Fund)?

  1. ₹15,000
  2. ₹30,000
  3. ₹40,000
  4. ₹50,000
  5. ₹60,000

Answer: ₹15,000

Detailed Explanation:

  • RKVY provides financial support for various agricultural infrastructure projects, including soil reclamation.
  • Acidic Soil Reclamation: The cost of reclaiming acidic soils typically includes the application of lime to neutralize soil acidity and improve soil fertility.
  • ₹15,000 per hectare is allocated to cover these expenses, aiming to improve soil health and enhance crop productivity. The support helps farmers in adopting practices that improve soil conditions, leading to better yields.

37:What is the subsidy given for fishpond construction under the Blue Revolution scheme?

  1. 40%
  2. 50%
  3. 60%
  4. 65%
  5. 33%

Answer: 50%

Detailed Explanation:

  • Blue Revolution aims to enhance fish production and aquaculture practices in India.
  • Subsidy: A 50% subsidy is provided for the construction of fishponds, which helps farmers and entrepreneurs reduce the financial burden of establishing aquaculture systems.
  • Impact: This subsidy encourages the development of fishponds and supports sustainable fish farming, contributing to increased fish production and improved livelihoods for those involved in aquaculture.

38: According to RBI rules, how much loan can be given to poor and small farmers?

  1. ₹1.5 lakhs
  2. ₹2 lakhs
  3. ₹2.5 lakhs
  4. ₹3 lakhs
  5. ₹1 lakh

Answer: ₹1 lakh

Detailed Explanation:

  • RBI Guidelines: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sets guidelines for agricultural credit to support small and marginal farmers.
  • Loan Amount: The maximum loan amount of ₹1 lakh is provided to poor and small farmers to help them with their agricultural needs, such as purchasing inputs, machinery, and other resources.
  • Purpose: This policy aims to make credit accessible to those who need it most, facilitating their agricultural activities and contributing to rural development. The loan helps farmers improve their productivity and manage financial risks associated with agriculture.

39:What is the propagation method of cashew?

  1. Approach grafting
  2. Softwood grafting
  3. Budding
  4. Cutting
  5. Layering

Answer: Softwood grafting

Detailed Explanation:

  • Cashew Propagation: Cashew trees are typically propagated through softwood grafting. This method involves grafting a young, softwood shoot of the desired variety onto a rootstock. This technique is preferred because it helps in producing high-quality plants that maintain the characteristics of the parent variety.
  • Other Methods:
    • Approach Grafting: Commonly used for plants that are not easily propagated by other methods but is less common for cashew.
    • Budding: Involves inserting a bud from a desired variety into the rootstock; more common in some fruit trees but less frequently used for cashew.
    • Cutting: Involves planting a piece of the stem; generally less effective for cashew.
    • Layering: Involves inducing roots on a stem while it is still attached to the parent plant; not commonly used for cashew.

40:What is the useful working hours of a combine harvester?

  1. 6000
  2. 7000
  3. 10000
  4. 5000
  5. 3000

Answer: 6000

Detailed Explanation:

  • Useful Working Hours: A combine harvester is expected to have a useful working life of around 6000 hours. This is the period during which the machine can operate efficiently before major overhauls or replacements are needed.
  • Maintenance: Regular maintenance and proper usage can extend the lifespan of the harvester and ensure optimal performance throughout its working hours.

41:How many mandis are covered under E-nam till now?

  1. 500-600
  2. 400-500
  3. 350-450
  4. More than 600
  5. None of these

Answer: 500-600

Detailed Explanation:

  • E-nam: The Electronic National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is a platform aimed at integrating agricultural markets across India to facilitate online trading. As of the latest data, 500-600 mandis are covered under eNAM.
  • Purpose: The platform helps in providing better price discovery and reducing transaction costs for farmers, enhancing market access and efficiency.

42:Which river covers the lowest area under farming?

  1. Mahanadi
  2. Krishna
  3. Godavari
  4. Indus
  5. Narmada

Answer: Indus

Detailed Explanation:

  • Indus River: The Indus River basin covers the lowest area under farming compared to the other rivers listed. The river primarily flows through arid and semi-arid regions, including parts of Pakistan, which limits its irrigation potential compared to the other rivers.
  • Other Rivers:
    • Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, and Narmada: These rivers flow through more fertile regions with better irrigation infrastructure, supporting larger areas of cultivation.

43:In which method does crop residue remain undisturbed but is disturbed during the sowing of seeds and fertilizer injection?

  1. No till
  2. Strip tillage
  3. Reduced tillage
  4. Mulch tillage
  5. Conventional tillage

Answer: No till

Detailed Explanation:

  • No Till: In no-till farming, crop residues are left undisturbed on the soil surface. Seeds and fertilizers are planted or injected directly into the soil without disturbing the residue, which helps in preserving soil structure and moisture.
  • Other Methods:
    • Strip Tillage: Involves tilling only the strips where seeds will be planted, leaving the rest of the field undisturbed.
    • Reduced Tillage: Involves less tilling compared to conventional methods but does not necessarily leave residues undisturbed.
    • Mulch Tillage: Involves tilling the soil but leaving a layer of mulch on the surface.
    • Conventional Tillage: Involves comprehensive soil disturbance, including the incorporation of crop residues.

44:Which among the following biofertilizers does not provide nitrogen?

  1. Trichoderma viride
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Azotobacter
  4. Acetobacter
  5. Aspergillus

Answer: Trichoderma viride

Detailed Explanation:

  • Trichoderma viride: This is a fungal biofertilizer known for its role in decomposing organic matter and controlling soil-borne pathogens, but it does not fix or provide nitrogen to plants.
  • Other Biofertilizers:
    • Rhizobium: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria that form symbiotic relationships with legumes.
    • Azotobacter: Free-living bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
    • Acetobacter: Bacteria that can fix nitrogen and enhance plant growth.
    • Aspergillus: A genus of fungi, some species of which can assist in nutrient uptake and plant growth.

 45: Which among the following states has the highest labour wages per day?

  1. Tripura
  2. Punjab
  3. Haryana
  4. Odisha
  5. Bihar

Answer: Haryana

Detailed Explanation:

  • Labour Wages: In India, labor wages vary significantly across states due to differences in cost of living, economic conditions, and demand for labor. Haryana typically has the highest labor wages per day among the states listed. This is attributed to its relatively higher cost of living and stronger economic conditions compared to other states like Tripura, Punjab, Odisha, and Bihar.
  • Context: Labour wages are influenced by various factors including economic development, industrialization, and urbanization.

46: How many crossbreeds are taken with fish culture in one hectare land?

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7
  5. 8

Answer: 5

Detailed Explanation:

  • Fish Culture: In aquaculture, crossbreeding refers to the practice of cultivating different species or varieties of fish together in a single pond or tank. On average, 5 different crossbreeds can be successfully managed in one hectare of land. This number ensures that the fish species have compatible environmental and nutritional needs.
  • Considerations: Factors such as water quality, space, and the specific needs of each fish species are crucial in determining the number of crossbreeds that can be effectively managed.

47: Tractor-drawn power harrow capacity?

  1. 1.5
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. None of these

Answer: 1.5

Detailed Explanation:

  • Power Harrow: A tractor-drawn power harrow is used for tilling soil and preparing seedbeds. Its capacity is typically measured in hectares per hour. The capacity of a standard tractor-drawn power harrow is approximately 1.5 hectares per hour.
  • Use: Power harrows are essential for creating a fine seedbed and improving soil structure, which is crucial for successful planting.

48: What is the assistance for Power Tiller for SC/ST, Small & Marginal, Women farmers, and NE States—below 8 BHP?

  1. 25000
  2. 50000
  3. 65000
  4. 70000
  5. 80000

Answer: 50000

Detailed Explanation:

  • Power Tiller Assistance: For farmers from SC/ST communities, small and marginal farmers, women farmers, and those in North-Eastern (NE) states, the government provides financial assistance for purchasing power tillers. The assistance amount is generally ₹50,000 for power tillers with a capacity of less than 8 BHP (Brake Horsepower).
  • Purpose: This subsidy aims to reduce the cost burden on farmers and encourage the adoption of mechanized farming practices.

49: What is the assistance for tube well/bore under RAD (Rural Agriculture Development)?

  1. 10000
  2. 15000
  3. 25000
  4. 35000
  5. None of these

Answer: 25000

Detailed Explanation:

  • Tube Well/Bore Assistance: Under the Rural Agriculture Development (RAD) scheme, financial assistance is provided for the installation of tube wells or bore wells to improve irrigation facilities. The assistance amount is ₹25,000.
  • Impact: This support helps in expanding irrigation infrastructure and improving water availability for agricultural activities.

50: Loan for building infrastructure for activities such as schools, healthcare facilities, and sanitation facilities in priority sector lending?

  1. 1 crore
  2. 5 crore
  3. 50 lakhs
  4. 2 crore
  5. 4 crore

Answer: 5 crore

Detailed Explanation:

  • Priority Sector Lending: In the priority sector lending by banks, loans are provided for various infrastructure projects including schools, healthcare facilities, and sanitation facilities. The maximum loan amount available for such projects is ₹5 crore.
  • Objective: This financial support is aimed at enhancing social infrastructure and improving the quality of life in rural and underdeveloped areas.

51. Which of the following states has the lowest daily labor wages?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Tripura
  3. Assam
  4. Chhattisgarh
  5. Punjab

Answer: Tripura

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Economic Conditions: Tripura is one of the less economically developed states in India. Lower economic development typically correlates with lower wages due to reduced overall economic activity and lower cost of living.
  2. Cost of Living: The cost of living in Tripura is generally lower compared to more industrialized states like Gujarat and Punjab. Lower costs for housing, food, and other essentials often result in lower wage rates.
  3. Labor Market Demand: In less developed states, there may be less demand for labor compared to more developed regions where economic activities are higher, contributing to lower wages.
  4. Regional Policies: State-specific labor policies and minimum wage laws can influence wage levels. Tripura may have different policies that contribute to its lower wage rates.
  5. Comparison: Compared to states like Gujarat and Punjab, which have higher levels of industrialization and economic activities, Tripura’s lower wages reflect its different economic conditions.

52. What is considered a high-volume spray fluid quantity in agricultural practices?

  1. More than 400 liters
  2. Less than 400 liters
  3. More than 200 liters
  4. More than 300 liters
  5. More than 100 liters

Answer: More than 400 liters

Detailed Explanation:

  1. High-Volume Spraying Definition: High-volume spraying refers to using a significant amount of spray fluid to cover a given area. This method ensures that the application reaches all parts of the crop.
  2. Effective Coverage: Using more than 400 liters per hectare allows for thorough coverage of crops, including hard-to-reach areas like the underside of leaves, which is crucial for effective pest control and nutrient application.
  3. Application Method: High-volume spraying is often used for crops that require detailed and extensive treatment, such as those with dense foliage or in cases where pest infestations are severe.
  4. Operational Efficiency: While high-volume spraying can be more labor and resource-intensive, it is essential for ensuring complete and effective treatment, especially for certain types of chemicals and fertilizers.
  5. Comparison: Options such as “more than 200 liters” or “more than 300 liters” may be considered medium to low-volume, whereas “more than 400 liters” is specifically categorized as high-volume in agricultural terms.

53. According to NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development), how many graft scions can be taken from a single plant?

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 30
  5. 40

Answer: 15

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Guideline Purpose: NABARD’s guidelines aim to ensure the health and productivity of both the parent plant and the scions used for grafting.
  2. Plant Health: Limiting the number of scions to 15 helps maintain the parent plant’s health, preventing excessive stress and potential degradation in its vitality.
  3. Scion Quality: A smaller number of scions ensures that the quality of each scion is high, as over-harvesting can lead to weakened or less viable grafting material.
  4. Sustainable Practices: This limit is also in line with sustainable agricultural practices, which balance the need for new plants with the preservation of existing resources.
  5. Comparison: Larger numbers (20, 25, etc.) might stress the parent plant more and reduce the quality of the scions, which is why NABARD recommends a more conservative number like 15.

54. Which state among the following has the lowest level of ground brackish water in its inland areas?

  1. Odisha
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Karnataka
  5. Gujarat

Answer: Karnataka

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Geological Factors: Karnataka’s geological conditions contribute to lower levels of brackish water. The state’s inland areas are less influenced by saline water intrusion compared to coastal or semi-coastal states.
  2. Hydrological Conditions: Karnataka has a diverse range of rivers and groundwater sources, which are generally less saline compared to those in states like Gujarat or Tamil Nadu.
  3. Groundwater Management: The state’s groundwater management practices and natural aquifer conditions help in maintaining lower salinity levels in inland areas.
  4. Comparison: Coastal states such as Gujarat and Tamil Nadu often experience higher levels of brackish water due to saltwater intrusion, making Karnataka’s inland areas comparatively lower in salinity.
  5. Regional Impact: Karnataka’s relatively inland position and the absence of extensive coastal influence result in reduced brackish water levels compared to the other listed states.

55. What is the field capacity of a tractor-drawn power harrow?

  1. 0.5 ha/day
  2. 1.5 ha/day
  3. 2.5 ha/day
  4. 3.5 ha/day
  5. None of these

Answer: 1.5 ha/day

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Definition: Field capacity refers to the amount of land that can be prepared in a day using a specific piece of equipment. For a tractor-drawn power harrow, this capacity indicates its efficiency and productivity.
  2. Equipment Function: A power harrow is used for soil tillage, which involves breaking up and leveling the soil. Its field capacity of 1.5 hectares per day reflects its ability to process a substantial amount of land within a day.
  3. Operational Factors: The field capacity can vary based on working speed, soil type, field conditions, and the specific model of the power harrow. However, 1.5 hectares per day is a typical average for standard models.
  4. Efficiency: This capacity allows for efficient land preparation, helping farmers plan their operations and schedule effectively. It helps in estimating the time needed to prepare fields for planting.
  5. Comparison: The other options (0.5 ha/day, 2.5 ha/day, 3.5 ha/day) represent different ranges of field capacities. The 1.5 ha/day figure is a commonly used benchmark for the efficiency of tractor-drawn power harrows.

56. What is the subsidy for a 15 hp MB plough for SC/ST women according to NABARD?

  1. ₹0.16 lakh, 50%
  2. ₹0.20 lakh, 40%
  3. ₹20 lakh, 40%
  4. ₹16 lakh, 50%
  5. None of these

Answer: None of these

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Subsidy Scheme Overview: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) provides subsidies for agricultural equipment to support SC/ST women farmers. The subsidy amount and percentage are designed to make farming equipment more affordable and accessible.
  2. Correct Information: The subsidy details for a 15 hp MB (Moldboard) plough as per NABARD guidelines might not match any of the provided options. The exact amount and percentage can vary based on the latest NABARD schemes, regional policies, and budget allocations.
  3. Verification: It is essential to check the most recent NABARD guidelines or notifications for the accurate subsidy amount and percentage. The options given may not reflect the current scheme details.
  4. Implication: The “None of these” answer suggests that the actual subsidy figures for SC/ST women may differ from those listed, and users should consult official NABARD sources for the latest and correct information.

57. How many districts are covered under the Lead Bank Scheme till now?

  1. 706
  2. 278
  3. 526
  4. 678
  5. 901

Answer: 706

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Lead Bank Scheme: The Lead Bank Scheme is an initiative by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to improve banking outreach in rural and semi-urban areas. Under this scheme, certain banks are designated as lead banks for specific districts, responsible for providing financial services and facilitating development projects.
  2. Coverage: As of the latest data, the Lead Bank Scheme covers 706 districts. This number reflects the extent of the scheme’s implementation and its role in enhancing financial inclusion.
  3. Impact: The coverage of 706 districts indicates the breadth of the scheme’s reach and its importance in promoting banking services in underserved areas.
  4. Verification: For the most current and accurate figures, it is advisable to consult the latest RBI reports or official announcements related to the Lead Bank Scheme.

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2017-18 Previous Year Paper

IBPS SO AFO Mains 2017-18 Previous Year Paper

1. What is the optimum pH range required for guava cultivation?

  1. 4.5 – 5.5
  2. 4 – 6
  3. Less than 6.5
  4. 6.5 – 8
  5. More than 8

Answer: 6.5 – 8

Detailed Explanation:

  1. pH Range for Guava: Guava plants thrive best in slightly alkaline to neutral soil conditions. The optimum pH range for guava cultivation is between 6.5 and 8. This range provides a suitable environment for nutrient availability and overall plant health.
  2. Soil Conditions: Guava can tolerate a wider range of soil pH, but soils within the 6.5 to 8 range are ideal for achieving optimal growth and fruit production.
  3. Nutrient Availability: Soil pH affects the availability of essential nutrients. At a pH range of 6.5 to 8, nutrients such as phosphorus, potassium, and calcium are more readily available to the guava plant.
  4. Tolerance: While guava can survive in slightly acidic soils (pH less than 6.5) or alkaline soils (pH above 8), the best growth and productivity are observed within the optimal pH range.

2. Ratna variety of mango is a cross of which two varieties?

  1. Alphonso × Neelum
  2. Amarpali × Neelum
  3. Neelam × Alphonso
  4. Dasehari × Sensation
  5. Amarpali × Sensation

Answer: Neelam × Alphonso

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Ratna Mango Variety: The Ratna variety of mango is a hybrid resulting from the cross between Neelam and Alphonso varieties. This cross combines desirable traits from both parent varieties.
  2. Parent Varieties:
    • Neelam: Known for its rich flavor and good keeping quality.
    • Alphonso: Renowned for its exceptional sweetness and aroma.
  3. Hybrid Characteristics: The Ratna variety benefits from the strengths of both parent varieties, including better fruit quality, flavor, and yield.
  4. Breeding Purpose: Hybrid varieties like Ratna are developed to improve specific characteristics such as fruit size, taste, and resistance to diseases.

3. What is the optimum pH range required for banana cultivation?

  1. 4.5 – 5.5
  2. 6.5 – 7.5
  3. 4 – 6
  4. Less than 6.5
  5. More than 7.5

Answer: 6.5 – 7.5

Detailed Explanation:

  1. pH Range for Banana: Banana plants prefer a slightly alkaline to neutral soil pH for optimal growth. The ideal pH range is between 6.5 and 7.5.
  2. Soil Health: This pH range ensures that essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are available to the banana plants, promoting healthy growth and high fruit yields.
  3. Nutrient Absorption: Soil pH directly affects the availability of nutrients. A pH range of 6.5 to 7.5 is conducive to balanced nutrient absorption.
  4. Tolerance: While bananas can grow in a range of pH levels, soils within the 6.5 to 7.5 range provide the best conditions for maximum growth and productivity.

4. Which fish has the highest protein content?

  1. Tuna
  2. Salmon
  3. Mrigal
  4. Rohu
  5. Catla

Answer: Tuna

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Protein Content: Tuna is known for its high protein content compared to other fish. On average, tuna contains about 23-30 grams of protein per 100 grams, which is higher than the protein content found in salmon, mrigal, rohu, or catla.
  2. Comparison:
    • Salmon: While salmon is also high in protein (about 20 grams per 100 grams), it is slightly lower in protein content compared to tuna.
    • Mrigal, Rohu, Catla: These freshwater fish typically have lower protein content (approximately 15-20 grams per 100 grams) compared to tuna.
  3. Nutritional Benefits: The high protein content in tuna makes it an excellent choice for those looking to increase their protein intake, especially in a diet focused on muscle building or overall health.

5. Which of the following is not a quality of a “4-stroke engine”?

  1. Fuel is fully consumed
  2. It is an internal combustion engine
  3. Fuel is not fully consumed
  4. Fuel is constant
  5. Fuel is increasing then decreasing

Answer: Fuel is not fully consumed

Detailed Explanation:

  1. 4-Stroke Engine Basics: A 4-stroke engine is an internal combustion engine that operates through a cycle of four distinct strokes: intake, compression, power, and exhaust.
  2. Fuel Consumption: In a well-functioning 4-stroke engine, fuel should be fully consumed during the power stroke, where the fuel-air mixture is ignited and burned completely. If fuel is not fully consumed, it indicates incomplete combustion, which is not characteristic of a properly functioning 4-stroke engine.
  3. Other Features:
    • Internal Combustion Engine: A 4-stroke engine is indeed an internal combustion engine.
    • Fuel Variability: The statement “Fuel is constant” and “Fuel is increasing then decreasing” are not relevant to the operation of a 4-stroke engine, as the engine’s focus is on the efficiency and completeness of combustion rather than the variability of fuel.
  4. Efficiency: Proper fuel consumption is crucial for the efficiency and performance of a 4-stroke engine. Incomplete combustion can lead to increased emissions and reduced engine performance.

6. Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), what is the premium percentage to be paid by farmers for commercial and horticultural crops?

  1. 2%
  2. 3%
  3. 1.5%
  4. 5%
  5. 4%

Answer: 5%

Detailed Explanation:

  1. PMFBY Scheme: The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a crop insurance scheme launched by the Government of India to provide financial support to farmers in case of crop failure due to various risks.
  2. Premium Payment: Under PMFBY, the premium percentage for commercial and horticultural crops that farmers need to pay is 5% of the sum insured. This premium rate is designed to make crop insurance more affordable and accessible to farmers.
  3. Coverage: The scheme aims to cover a wide range of risks including natural calamities, pests, and diseases. The premium rates for different crop categories are set to balance affordability for farmers with financial sustainability for the insurance scheme.
  4. Comparison: The premium rates for other types of crops (like food crops) may be different, but for commercial and horticultural crops, the rate is specifically 5%.

7. Under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY), what is the amount of money allotted during the 5-year plan?

  1. ₹2000 crore
  2. ₹5000 crore
  3. ₹50,000 crore
  4. ₹20,000 crore
  5. ₹10,000 crore

Answer: ₹50,000 crore

Detailed Explanation:

  1. PMKSY Objective: The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is an initiative aimed at improving irrigation facilities and ensuring efficient use of water resources in agriculture.
  2. Funding Allocation: During the 5-year plan, the government allocated ₹50,000 crore for PMKSY. This substantial investment is intended to enhance irrigation infrastructure, support water conservation, and boost agricultural productivity.
  3. Components: The funding covers various components such as the creation of irrigation facilities, improving water-use efficiency, and implementing new irrigation technologies.
  4. Significance: The large financial allocation reflects the government’s commitment to improving agricultural productivity and sustainability through better water management.

8. Which micronutrient plays an activist and catalytic role in the photosynthesis of plants?

  1. Nitrogen (N)
  2. Phosphorus (P)
  3. Sulfur (S)
  4. Magnesium (Mg)
  5. Boron (B)

Answer: Magnesium (Mg)

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Role of Magnesium: Magnesium is a crucial micronutrient that plays a significant role in photosynthesis. It is a central component of chlorophyll, the pigment responsible for capturing light energy and converting it into chemical energy during photosynthesis.
  2. Photosynthesis: Magnesium acts as an activator and catalyst in various enzyme reactions involved in the photosynthesis process. It helps in the formation of chlorophyll and assists in the proper functioning of photosynthetic enzymes.
  3. Comparison with Other Nutrients:
    • Nitrogen (N): Although important for overall plant growth and chlorophyll production, nitrogen is not a micronutrient; it is a macronutrient.
    • Phosphorus (P): Essential for energy transfer and root development, but not directly involved in photosynthesis like magnesium.
    • Sulfur (S): Important for protein synthesis and enzyme function, but magnesium is more directly involved in the photosynthesis process.
    • Boron (B): Plays a role in cell wall formation and nutrient uptake but does not directly affect the photosynthesis process like magnesium.

Micronutrient Importance: Magnesium deficiency can lead to reduced chlorophyll production and poor photosynthesis, highlighting its critical role in plant health and productivity.

9. Which of the following crops is highly tolerant to salt?

  1. Lime
  2. Cotton
  3. Mango
  4. Jute
  5. Apple

Answer: Cotton

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Salt Tolerance: Cotton is known for its high salt tolerance compared to other crops. It can thrive in soils with higher salinity levels, making it suitable for regions where soil salinity is a concern.
  2. Comparative Tolerance:
    • Lime: Sensitive to high soil salinity; prefers well-drained, less saline soils.
    • Mango: Not particularly salt-tolerant; thrives in areas with low soil salinity.
    • Jute: Tolerates some salinity but not as well as cotton.
    • Apple: Highly sensitive to soil salinity and requires low salinity for optimal growth.
  3. Agricultural Implications: Cotton’s ability to grow in saline conditions makes it a valuable crop in areas with marginal soils where other crops might struggle.

10. According to the Interest Subvention Scheme, what percentage of interest is subsidized for farmers receiving short-term crop loans payable within one year up to ₹3 lakhs per annum?

  1. 2%
  2. 4%
  3. 5%
  4. 7%
  5. 1.5%

Answer: 4%

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Interest Subvention Scheme: This scheme provides interest subsidies to farmers to reduce the effective interest rate on short-term crop loans. It is aimed at making credit more affordable for farmers.
  2. Subsidy Rate: Under the scheme, farmers who receive short-term crop loans up to ₹3 lakhs and repay within one year are eligible for an interest subsidy of 4% per annum.
  3. Purpose: The interest subvention helps in reducing the financial burden on farmers by lowering the effective cost of borrowing, which encourages timely repayment and improves agricultural productivity.
  4. Impact: This rate is designed to support small and marginal farmers in managing their short-term credit needs efficiently.

11. Totapari variety of mango is native to which state?

  1. Orissa
  2. Gujarat
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Karnataka
  5. Maharashtra

Answer: Karnataka

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Totapari Mango: The Totapari mango is a variety known for its distinct taste and is predominantly grown in Karnataka. It is also referred to as the “Totapuri” mango in some regions.
  2. Regional Significance:
    • Karnataka: The state is renowned for the production of Totapari mangoes, particularly in the districts of Kolar, Tumkur, and parts of Bangalore Rural.
    • Other States: While mangoes are grown in various parts of India, Totapari is specifically associated with Karnataka.
  3. Characteristics: This variety is known for its greenish-yellow skin and slightly tangy flavor, making it popular in both domestic and export markets.

13. Which state among the following has the highest amount of alkali problematic soil?

  1. Chhattisgarh
  2. Madhya Pradesh (MP)
  3. Haryana
  4. Maharashtra (MH)
  5. Gujarat

Answer: Gujarat

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Alkali Problematic Soil: Alkali or sodic soils are characterized by high levels of sodium, which can affect soil structure and plant growth. Gujarat is known for having significant areas of alkali problematic soils.
  2. Soil Management: These soils often require specific management practices to improve their fertility and usability for agriculture. The state has undertaken various reclamation projects to address soil issues.
  3. Comparison:
    • Chhattisgarh, MP, Haryana, Maharashtra: While these states also have areas with soil challenges, Gujarat has been particularly noted for its widespread alkali problematic soils.
  4. Implications: Effective management and reclamation of alkali soils are crucial for improving agricultural productivity in affected regions.

14. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Sulphur
  4. Iron
  5. Potash

Answer: Iron

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Micronutrient Definition: Micronutrients are essential elements required by plants in small quantities but are crucial for their growth and development.
  2. Iron’s Role: Iron is a key micronutrient involved in various physiological processes, including chlorophyll synthesis and enzyme function. It is vital for plant health and development.
  3. Comparison:
    • Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potash: These are macronutrients required in larger quantities for plant growth.
    • Sulphur: While important, it is also considered a secondary nutrient rather than a micronutrient.
    • Iron: Specifically classified as a micronutrient due to its required small amounts but critical role in plant functions.
  4. Deficiency: Iron deficiency can lead to chlorosis (yellowing of leaves) and other growth issues in plants.

15. Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), what is the premium percentage to be paid by farmers for kharif season crops?

  1. 2%
  2. 3%
  3. 5%
  4. 1.5%
  5. 4%

Answer: 2%

Detailed Explanation:

  1. PMFBY Premium for Kharif Crops: Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the premium that farmers need to pay for kharif season crops is 2% of the sum insured.
  2. Scheme Benefits: This low premium rate is designed to make crop insurance more affordable for farmers, thereby encouraging greater participation and providing financial protection against crop losses.
  3. Coverage: The scheme covers various risks including natural calamities, pest attacks, and diseases. The 2% premium rate helps in reducing the financial burden on farmers while ensuring they have access to insurance protection.
  4. Comparison: The premium rates for rabi season crops and other types of crops might differ, but for kharif season crops, the rate is specifically set at 2%.

16. What is the daily weight gain of a well-fed crossbreed calf?

  1. 400 grams
  2. 325 grams
  3. 200 grams
  4. 300 grams
  5. None of these

Answer: 400 grams

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Daily Weight Gain: Well-fed crossbreed calves typically exhibit a daily weight gain of around 400 grams. This rate can vary based on nutrition, health, and management practices.
  2. Importance of Weight Gain: Adequate weight gain is crucial for the healthy development of calves, affecting their growth rate, future productivity, and overall health.
  3. Factors Influencing Weight Gain: Nutritional quality, feeding practices, and genetics play significant roles in achieving optimal weight gain.
  4. Comparison: While calves might gain different amounts based on conditions, 400 grams per day is a standard benchmark for well-fed crossbreeds.

17. What is the power output range of a Power Take-Off (PTO) shaft?

  1. 40-50 HP
  2. 50-60 HP
  3. 60-70 HP
  4. 70-80 HP
  5. 30-40 HP

Answer: 70-80 HP

Detailed Explanation:

  1. PTO Power Output: The power output of a Power Take-Off (PTO) shaft typically ranges from 70 to 80 horsepower (HP). PTO shafts are used to transfer power from the tractor to various implements.
  2. Function: The PTO is crucial for operating equipment like mowers, tillers, and balers, requiring sufficient power to perform these tasks efficiently.
  3. Tractor Compatibility: PTO shafts are designed to match the power output of the tractor, ensuring effective operation of connected implements.
  4. Comparison: Power outputs can vary based on the size and type of the tractor and the implements used.

18. In which form of cutting are all branches of fodder crops removed?

  1. Pollarding
  2. Coppicing
  3. Thinning
  4. Heading back
  5. Lopping

Answer: Lopping

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Lopping: Lopping involves cutting off all branches of a tree or shrub. In fodder crops, lopping is used to manage growth and enhance the quality of the fodder.
  2. Other Techniques:
    • Pollarding: Involves cutting the top branches of a tree but leaving a portion of the stem.
    • Coppicing: Involves cutting trees down to the ground to encourage new growth.
    • Thinning: Refers to selectively removing some trees or branches to reduce crowding.
    • Heading Back: Involves cutting back the growing tips of branches.
  3. Purpose: Lopping helps in managing the size and shape of the crop, improving accessibility, and ensuring a steady supply of fodder.

19. What is the annual rainfall for a humid area in millimeters (mm)?

  1. More than 1000 mm
  2. 750-1000 mm
  3. Less than 1000 mm
  4. 500-1000 mm
  5. Less than 750 mm

Answer: More than 1000 mm

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Humid Areas: Humid areas are characterized by high levels of annual rainfall, typically exceeding 1000 mm. This abundant rainfall supports lush vegetation and diverse ecosystems.
  2. Rainfall Classification:
    • More than 1000 mm: Indicates a humid climate with consistent and high precipitation throughout the year.
    • 750-1000 mm: Generally associated with sub-humid or semi-arid regions.
  3. Impact on Agriculture: High rainfall in humid areas supports diverse agricultural activities and contributes to soil moisture, which is beneficial for crop growth.

20. What is the optimum pH range required for grape cultivation?

  1. 4.5 – 5.5
  2. 4-6
  3. 5.5 – 6.5
  4. More than 6.5
  5. 6.5 – 7.5

Answer: 5.5 – 6.5

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Grape Cultivation: Grapes grow best in soil with a pH range of 5.5 to 6.5. This pH range promotes healthy vine growth and optimal fruit development.
  2. Soil pH Importance: Proper pH levels affect nutrient availability and uptake, which are crucial for grapevine health and fruit quality.
  3. pH Management: Maintaining the soil pH within this range ensures that essential nutrients are available and prevents potential issues related to soil acidity or alkalinity.

21. For cultivating an area of around 40 hectares for monocropping, what horsepower (HP) tractor is preferred?

  1. 30 HP
  2. 25 HP
  3. 35 HP
  4. 45 HP
  5. More than 35 HP

Answer: 25 HP

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Tractor Size: A 25 HP tractor is typically suitable for managing 40 hectares of land for monocropping. This size is adequate for performing essential tasks like plowing, planting, and cultivating.
  2. Considerations: The choice of tractor HP depends on the type of crops, soil conditions, and the specific tasks required. While larger HP tractors can also be used, a 25 HP tractor is generally efficient for the given area.
  3. Efficiency: A tractor with appropriate HP ensures effective operation and minimizes the time required for fieldwork.

22. Which tillage implement requires the minimum draft per unit width?

  1. Cultivator
  2. Harvester
  3. Planter
  4. Dibbler
  5. Driller

Answer: Planter

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Draft Requirement: The planter generally requires the minimum draft per unit width compared to other tillage implements. This is because planters are designed primarily for planting seeds and require less power to operate compared to implements like cultivators or harvesters.
  2. Comparison:
    • Cultivator: Requires more draft as it works the soil for preparing the seedbed.
    • Harvester: Generally requires significant power to harvest crops.
    • Dibbler: Used for making small holes for planting seeds and requires less draft than a cultivator but more than a planter.
    • Driller: Used for sowing seeds in rows and requires more draft than a planter.
  3. Operational Efficiency: The lower draft requirement of planters makes them suitable for efficient planting operations with minimal power input.

23. What is the capacity of a high-volume sprayer?

  1. 100-400 liters
  2. Less than 400 liters
  3. 200-250 liters
  4. More than 400 liters
  5. 300-500 liters

Answer: More than 400 liters

Detailed Explanation:

  1. High-Volume Sprayer: High-volume sprayers are designed to handle large quantities of liquid and typically have a capacity of more than 400 liters.
  2. Application: These sprayers are used for applying pesticides, fertilizers, and other chemicals over large areas, ensuring effective coverage and distribution.
  3. Capacity Comparison: Compared to lower-capacity sprayers, high-volume sprayers can cover more ground and handle larger volumes of liquid, making them suitable for extensive agricultural operations.

24. What is the horsepower (HP) required for a power sprayer?

  1. 1-2 HP
  2. 2-3 HP
  3. 5-7 HP
  4. 4-6 HP
  5. 3-5 HP

Answer: 3-5 HP

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Power Sprayer: A power sprayer typically requires between 3 and 5 horsepower (HP) to operate efficiently. This power range ensures adequate pressure and flow for effective spraying.
  2. Function: Power sprayers are used for applying liquids such as pesticides and fertilizers and need sufficient horsepower to ensure proper atomization and coverage.
  3. Comparison: Sprayers with higher HP can cover larger areas or operate more efficiently, but for many agricultural applications, 3-5 HP is sufficient.

25. Which of the following is a perennial plant?

  1. Banana
  2. Garlic
  3. Tomato
  4. Coconut
  5. Sugar beet

Answer: Coconut

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Perennial Plants: Perennial plants are those that live for more than two years, typically producing fruits or seeds over multiple seasons.
  2. Coconut: The coconut palm is a true perennial, living and producing fruit for several decades.
  3. Comparison:
    • Banana: Although it produces fruit annually, it is technically a large herb rather than a perennial plant due to its short life cycle and replanting.
    • Garlic, Tomato, Sugar Beet: These are annual or biennial plants, meaning they complete their life cycle in one or two years.
  4. Longevity: The long lifespan of the coconut palm makes it a classic example of a perennial plant, thriving year after year.

26. What is the electrical conductivity of saline soil?

  1. Less than 4
  2. More than 8.5
  3. More than 4
  4. Less than 8.5
  5. None of these

Answer: More than 4

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Electrical Conductivity (EC): Electrical conductivity is a measure of the soil’s ability to conduct electricity, which correlates with its salinity.
  2. Saline Soil: Saline soils typically have an electrical conductivity greater than 4 dS/m (decisiemens per meter), indicating high levels of soluble salts.
  3. Impact on Agriculture: High salinity affects soil structure, nutrient availability, and plant growth, making it essential to manage and remediate saline soils for successful agriculture.
  4. Comparison: Soils with EC levels below 4 dS/m are generally not considered saline. Therefore, an EC of more than 4 dS/m is indicative of saline conditions.

27. What is the efficiency of drip irrigation?

  1. 95%
  2. 85%
  3. 80%
  4. 70%
  5. 65%

Answer: 95%
Explanation: Drip irrigation is known for its high water use efficiency. It delivers water directly to the plant roots through a network of tubes, which minimizes water wastage due to evaporation, runoff, and deep percolation. The efficiency can reach up to 95%, making it highly effective for conserving water and improving crop yields.

28. What is the ESP of saline-alkaline soils?

  1. Less than 15
  2. More than 8.5
  3. Less than 8.5
  4. 11-15
  5. More than 15

Answer: More than 15
Explanation: Exchangeable Sodium Percentage (ESP) measures the proportion of sodium relative to other cations in the soil. Saline-alkaline soils have high ESP, typically greater than 15%. This high sodium content can lead to soil structure problems, reduced permeability, and poor plant growth due to the soil becoming crusty and poorly aerated.

29. What is the pH range of alkali soil?

  1. Less than 8.2
  2. More than 8.2
  3. 7-8.2
  4. 5.5-7
  5. 6.5-8.2

Answer: More than 8.2
Explanation: Alkali soils, or sodic soils, are characterized by a pH greater than 8.2. The high pH is due to the accumulation of sodium carbonate or bicarbonate, which affects soil structure and fertility. This condition can lead to poor plant growth as the high pH reduces the availability of essential nutrients.

30. Which among the following wood is used for making plywood timber?

  1. Sagwan
  2. Safeda
  3. Sandal wood
  4. Teak
  5. Aonla

Answer: Teak
Explanation: Teak wood is widely used in the production of plywood due to its strength, durability, and resistance to decay. It is valued for its quality and is commonly used in high-end furniture and construction. Other woods like Sagwan (also known as Rosewood) and Safeda are used for different purposes, such as furniture or paper production, but Teak is preferred for plywood.

31. Which nutrient helps in the formation of chlorophyll?

  1. N (Nitrogen)
  2. P (Phosphorus)
  3. K (Potassium)
  4. Fe (Iron)
  5. Mg (Magnesium)

Answer: Mg (Magnesium)
Explanation: Magnesium is a central component of the chlorophyll molecule, which is essential for photosynthesis. It helps in capturing light energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. A deficiency in magnesium can lead to chlorosis, where the plant leaves turn yellow while the veins remain green.

32. In which form of tillage, no plant is left undisturbed?

  1. Reduced tillage
  2. Stubble mulch
  3. Clean Tillage
  4. Conventional tillage
  5. Strip tillage

Answer: Clean Tillage
Explanation: Clean tillage involves completely removing all plant residues and disturbing the soil to prepare it for planting. This contrasts with conservation tillage methods like reduced tillage, which leave some residues on the soil surface to protect it and improve soil health. Clean tillage can lead to soil erosion and reduced moisture retention compared to conservation methods.

33. Which crop has the highest consumption of P₂O₅ (phosphorus pentoxide)?

  1. Groundnut
  2. Sugarcane
  3. Apple
  4. Jute
  5. Pineapple

Answer: Groundnut

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Phosphorus Requirement: Groundnut (peanut) has a high phosphorus requirement compared to many other crops. Phosphorus, in the form of P₂O₅, is essential for root development, energy transfer, and overall plant growth.
  2. Comparison:
    • Groundnut: Requires a significant amount of phosphorus to support the development of its extensive root system and to enhance nitrogen fixation.
    • Sugarcane: Also requires phosphorus but not as much as groundnut.
    • Apple, Jute, Pineapple: These crops have varying phosphorus needs, but they are generally lower compared to groundnut.
  3. Nutrient Management: Effective phosphorus management is crucial for optimizing yield and quality in groundnut cultivation.

34. What percentage of rice bran is used in fish feed?

  1. 20%
  2. 28%
  3. 35%
  4. 40%
  5. 50%

Answer: 50%

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Rice Bran in Fish Feed: Rice bran is commonly used in fish feed due to its nutritional content and cost-effectiveness. Typically, around 50% of the fish feed can be composed of rice bran.
  2. Nutritional Value: Rice bran provides essential nutrients and energy for fish, including proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
  3. Usage: The exact percentage can vary based on the specific formulation of the feed and the nutritional requirements of the fish species.

35. Which of the following animals has the highest Somatic Cell Count (S.N.F.) in their milk?

  1. Goat
  2. Camel
  3. Sheep
  4. Horse
  5. Buffalo

Answer: Sheep

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Somatic Cell Count (S.N.F.): The Somatic Cell Count is a measure of the quality and health of milk. It indicates the number of white blood cells present, which can be higher in certain animals.
  2. Comparison:
    • Sheep: Typically has the highest Somatic Cell Count (S.N.F.) in its milk, reflecting its milk composition and health status.
    • Goat, Camel, Horse, Buffalo: These animals have varying levels of Somatic Cell Count, but none exceed that of sheep.
  3. Milk Quality: High Somatic Cell Count in sheep milk is associated with its rich nutritional profile.

36. According to the Forest Policy of 1988, what percentage of land should be covered by forests?

  1. 28%
  2. 33%
  3. 35%
  4. 60%
  5. 75%

Answer: 33%

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Forest Policy 1988: The Indian Forest Policy of 1988 aims to achieve a forest cover of 33% of the total land area. This target is set to ensure ecological balance and sustainable development.
  2. Purpose: Forest cover is crucial for environmental health, including soil conservation, water regulation, and biodiversity preservation.
  3. Current Status: Achieving and maintaining this forest cover is essential for addressing deforestation and environmental degradation issues.

37. What is the age at first calving for Murrah buffaloes?

  1. 30-35 months
  2. 35-40 months
  3. 42-45 months
  4. 55 months
  5. None of these

Answer: 42-45 months

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Murrah Buffalo: Murrah buffaloes are a breed known for their high milk yield and are typically expected to calve for the first time at around 42-45 months of age.
  2. Reproductive Management: Timely calving is important for optimizing milk production and maintaining the health of the buffalo.
  3. Comparison: The age at first calving can vary based on management practices, nutrition, and overall health.

38. Which institute discovered the vaccine for Ranikhet disease?

  1. Central Avian Research Institute
  2. National Dairy Development Board
  3. National Institute of High Security Animal Disease
  4. National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology
  5. Indian Veterinary Research Institute

Answer: Indian Veterinary Research Institute

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Ranikhet Disease: Ranikhet disease (Newcastle disease) is a viral disease affecting poultry. The vaccine for this disease was developed by the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI).
  2. Institute Role: IVRI is a leading research institution in India specializing in animal diseases and veterinary research.
  3. Vaccine Development: The vaccine developed by IVRI has been crucial in controlling and preventing Ranikhet disease outbreaks in poultry.

39. Which institute formulated vaccines on Rinderpest?

  1. TVRI
  2. NISHAD
  3. NIANP
  4. NDDB
  5. CARI

Answer: TVRI
Explanation: The Rinderpest vaccine was developed by the Tropical Veterinary Research Institute (TVRI), which is known for its work in veterinary research and animal disease control. Rinderpest is a viral disease affecting cloven-hoofed animals, and the development of a vaccine was crucial in controlling outbreaks.

40. What is the floor space required for “Broiler Poultry (sq ft.)”?

  1. 0.5 sq feet
  2. 2 sq feet
  3. 15 sq feet
  4. 25 sq feet
  5. 1.5 sq feet

Answer: 15 sq feet
Explanation: For broiler poultry, the floor space requirement is typically around 1.5 to 2 square feet per bird in commercial poultry farming. However, in more spacious or less intensive systems, the floor space might be larger, such as 15 square feet for a group or smaller flock. Adequate space is important for ensuring the health and growth of broilers.

41. What is the floor space required for a pregnant cow?

  1. 10-12 sq feet
  2. 100-120 sq feet
  3. 100-120 sq meters
  4. 80-90 sq feet
  5. None of these

Answer: 100-120 sq feet
Explanation: Pregnant cows require more space than non-pregnant cows due to their increased size and the need for comfort. The recommended floor space for a pregnant cow is typically around 100-120 square feet to ensure adequate room for movement and comfort, reducing stress and improving overall health.

42. Papaya was introduced in India in which century?

  1. 14th Century
  2. 15th Century
  3. 18th Century
  4. 16th Century
  5. 17th Century

Answer: 16th Century
Explanation: Papaya was introduced to India in the 16th century, likely through trade routes from the Americas. The fruit has since become an integral part of Indian agriculture and cuisine, valued for its sweet flavor and nutritional benefits.

43. Which Institute had developed Karan Fries breed?

  1. NDDB, Gujarat
  2. NDRI, Karnal
  3. IVRI, Izzatnagar
  4. CARI, Izzatnagar
  5. NISHAD, Bangalore

Answer: NDRI, Karnal
Explanation: The Karan Fries breed, a cross between Holstein and Tharparkar cattle, was developed by the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) in Karnal. This breed is known for its high milk yield and adaptability to Indian conditions, combining the traits of both parent breeds to improve dairy production.

44. Integrated Scheme for Agriculture Marketing was launched in which year?

  1. 2015
  2. 2016
  3. 2012
  4. 2013
  5. 2014

Answer: 2014
Explanation: The Integrated Scheme for Agriculture Marketing was launched in 2014 to provide a comprehensive approach to improving the marketing infrastructure and processes in agriculture. This scheme aims to modernize agricultural markets, enhance market facilities, and improve the efficiency of agricultural marketing through better infrastructure and technology.

45. Central Avian Research Institute, Izatnagar was established in which year?

  1. 1979
  2. 1989
  3. 1889
  4. 1999
  5. 1879

Answer: 1979
Explanation: The Central Avian Research Institute (CARI) in Izatnagar was established in 1979. It is a premier institute focused on research related to poultry and avian species, working to improve poultry production, disease management, and overall avian health.

46. What is the interest rate of Kisan Credit Card after Interest Subvention Scheme?

  1. 5%
  2. 3%
  3. 4%
  4. 7%
  5. 2%

Answer: 7%
Explanation: The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme offers subsidized interest rates for farmers. After the implementation of the Interest Subvention Scheme, the effective interest rate on KCC loans is generally around 7%. This scheme aims to provide affordable credit to farmers for agricultural needs, with the government subsidizing part of the interest.

47. While reclaiming acid water in an aquatic pond, how much lime is required?

  1. 250 kg
  2. 550 kg
  3. 400 kg
  4. 600 kg
  5. 800 kg

Answer: 250 kg
Explanation: To reclaim acid water in an aquatic pond, lime is used to neutralize acidity. Typically, around 250 kg of lime per hectare is recommended to adjust the pH of acidic water and improve the conditions for aquatic life. The amount can vary based on the initial acidity and specific requirements of the pond.

48. Highest Ca is present in which manure?

  1. Sheep
  2. Goat
  3. Cattle
  4. Poultry
  5. Horse

Answer: Poultry
Explanation: Among different types of manure, poultry manure generally has the highest calcium content. This high calcium level is beneficial for soil conditioning and plant growth, making poultry manure a valuable source of nutrients for crops.

49. What is the optimum relative humidity range for crop production?

  1. 30-50 %
  2. 50-70 %
  3. 40-60 %
  4. 60-70 %
  5. None of these

Answer: 40-60 %
Explanation: The optimum relative humidity range for most crop production is 40-60%. This range helps in maintaining a balance between preventing excessive water loss through evaporation and avoiding conditions that promote the growth of fungal diseases.

50. What is the name of the agricultural system that includes a perennial hedge and crop?

  1. Avenue crop
  2. Cover crop
  3. Augmenting crop
  4. Alley crop
  5. Mixed crop

Answer: Alley crop

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Alley Cropping: Alley cropping involves planting crops in rows between trees or shrubs (perennial hedges). This system helps in maximizing land use and provides multiple benefits, including improved soil fertility and reduced erosion.
  2. System Components:
    • Perennial Hedge: Provides long-term protection and resources.
    • Crop: Grown in the space between the perennial hedges.
  3. Benefits: This practice supports sustainable agriculture by improving biodiversity, conserving soil moisture, and enhancing soil structure.

51. Which poultry breed has the highest weight at the age of 5 weeks?

  1. Aseel
  2. Frizzle
  3. Kadaknath
  4. Naked neck
  5. Both A and D

Answer: Aseel

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Aseel: The Aseel breed of poultry is known for its larger size and higher weight compared to other breeds at the age of 5 weeks.
  2. Characteristics: Aseel chickens are prized for their robustness and ability to reach a high weight quickly, making them suitable for meat production.
  3. Comparison:
    • Frizzle, Kadaknath, Naked Neck: While these breeds have their unique characteristics, they do not reach the same weight as Aseel at the same age.

52. How many batches of poultry can be reared in a year?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8
  5. 8-9

Answer: 7

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Poultry Rearing Cycles: In a typical commercial poultry operation, it is possible to rear up to 7 batches of poultry within a year.
  2. Cycle Duration: This allows for approximately 5-6 weeks per batch, plus time for cleaning and preparation between batches.
  3. Efficiency: Managing multiple batches per year helps in optimizing the use of resources and increasing overall production efficiency.

53. How much time is required for rearing prawns?

  1. 4 months
  2. 7 months
  3. 9 months
  4. 12 months
  5. More than 12 months

Answer: 7 months

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Prawn Rearing Duration: The typical rearing period for prawns (specifically, species like the Whiteleg shrimp) is around 7 months from stocking to harvest.
  2. Factors Influencing Duration:
    • Water Quality: Essential for growth and health.
    • Feeding Practices: Impact the growth rate.
  3. Comparison: Other rearing durations are less common or less optimal for commercial prawn farming.

54. What is the typical size of a semi-intensive fish farm pond?

  1. 0.5 ha
  2. 1 ha
  3. 2 ha
  4. 2.5 ha
  5. 3 ha

Answer: 1 ha

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Semi-Intensive Fish Farming: This method often uses ponds with a size of around 1 hectare (ha) to balance productivity and management.
  2. Pond Management: This size is manageable and allows for efficient monitoring of fish health, water quality, and feeding practices.
  3. Comparison: Larger or smaller ponds may be used based on specific farming goals and environmental conditions.

55. In which year was the power tiller introduced in India?

  1. 1947
  2. 1950
  3. 1963
  4. 1966
  5. 1978

Answer: 1963

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Power Tiller Introduction: The power tiller was introduced in India in 1963 as part of efforts to mechanize agriculture and improve productivity.
  2. Impact: The introduction of power tillers significantly enhanced the efficiency of soil preparation and farming operations.
  3. Development: Since its introduction, power tillers have been widely adopted in various regions of India, contributing to agricultural modernization.

56. Which among the following crops had the largest area under cultivation in India during the 2015-16 period?

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Barley
  5. Berseem

Answer: Rice

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Rice Cultivation: In India, rice consistently occupies the largest area among major crops due to its widespread cultivation in suitable regions like the eastern, southern, and northeastern states.
  2. Factors Influencing Area:
    • Climate: Rice requires a warm, wet climate, making it suitable for extensive cultivation in many parts of India.
    • Support Programs: Government policies and support for rice cultivation contribute to its large cultivation area.
  3. Comparison:
    • Wheat: Although significant, wheat is primarily grown in the northern and central parts of India.
    • Maize, Barley, Berseem: These crops cover less area compared to rice.

57. Which among the following crops had the highest production in India during the 2015-16 period?

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Barley
  5. Berseem

Answer: Rice

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Rice Production: In the 2015-16 period, rice had the highest production due to its extensive cultivation across various states, contributing significantly to India’s total cereal production.
  2. Production Factors:
    • Yield: Rice has a high yield per hectare in many regions due to favorable growing conditions and improved varieties.
    • Harvesting Techniques: Modern farming practices and technology enhance rice production.
  3. Comparison:
    • Wheat: While also a major crop, its production is less compared to rice due to different climatic requirements.
    • Maize, Barley, Berseem: These crops have lower production figures compared to rice.

58. Which among the following is a temperate crop?

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Barley
  5. Berseem

Answer: Wheat

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Temperate Crops: These crops thrive in temperate climates, characterized by moderate temperatures and distinct seasonal changes.
  2. Wheat: Wheat is a temperate crop that grows well in regions with cooler climates, making it suitable for cultivation in northern India and other temperate regions globally.
  3. Comparison:
    • Rice: Prefers warm, tropical, or subtropical climates.
    • Maize: Grows in both temperate and tropical climates but is more adaptable to warmer regions.
    • Barley: Also a temperate crop but less prominent than wheat.
    • Berseem: A forage crop suited to cooler climates, but not typically classified as a primary temperate crop.

59. Lopping is related to which of the following?

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Lucerne
  5. Cotton

Answer: Lucerne

Detailed Explanation:

  1. Lopping: Lopping refers to the practice of cutting back the branches of trees or shrubs to manage their growth and facilitate easier harvesting of fodder.
  2. Lucerne (Alfalfa): Lopping is relevant to Lucerne, a forage crop, to maintain its growth and productivity. It helps in managing the plant’s size and promoting healthy regrowth.
  3. Comparison:
    • Wheat, Rice, Maize, Cotton: These are field crops where lopping is not a common practice.

60. Highest SNF (Solid-Not-Fat) content is found in which animal’s milk?

  1. Cow
  2. Buffalo
  3. Goat
  4. Sheep
  5. Swine

Answer: Sheep

Detailed Explanation:

  1. SNF Content: Solid-Not-Fat (SNF) content measures the concentration of proteins, lactose, and minerals in milk. Higher SNF indicates richer milk.
  2. Sheep Milk: Sheep milk has the highest SNF content compared to other animal milks, making it richer in nutrients.
  3. Comparison:
    • Buffalo Milk: Has a high SNF content but generally lower than sheep milk.
    • Cow Milk: Lower SNF compared to sheep and buffalo milk.
    • Goat Milk: Also has a good SNF content but not as high as sheep milk.
    • Swine Milk: Rarely consumed and less studied.

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