1000 Horticulture Mcq For IBPS AFO With Explanation
This 1000 Horticulture MCQ Is very important for IBPS AFO, NABARD, RRBSO And all other agriculture exams
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1. What is the edible part of a potato?
a. Root
b. Tuber
c. Rhizome
d. Corm
Answer: b. Tuber
horticulture mcq Explanation: The edible part of a potato is the underground swollen stem, known as a tuber, where the plant stores nutrients.
2. What is the term for vegetable production aimed at local consumption?
a. home gardening
b. Truck gardening
c. Vegetable forcing
d. Market gardening
Answer: d. Market gardening
Explanation: Market gardening refers to the cultivation of vegetables for sale in local markets, typically focusing on producing fresh produce for local consumption.
3. Which type of foliage plants have extremely tender and watery stems?
a. Herb
b. Vine
c. Runner
d. Succulents
Answer: d. Succulents
Explanation: Succulents are foliage plants characterized by their thick, fleshy leaves and stems, adapted to store water in arid environments.
4. What is the typical life cycle of most summer vegetables?
a. Annual
b. Biennial
c. Perennial
d. None
Answer: a. Annual
Explanation: Most summer vegetables have an annual life cycle, completing their growth, flowering, and fruiting within a single growing season.
5. In which climatic region can summer vegetables be grown out of season?
a. Upper Sindh
b. Northern Punjab
c. Southern Punjab
d. Lower Sindh
Answer: d. Lower Sindh
Explanation: Lower Sindh, with its warmer climate, allows for the cultivation of summer vegetables out of their usual season because of favorable weather conditions.
6. What does the inner integument develop into during seed formation?
a. Testa
b. Aril
c. Hilum
d. Tegmen
Answer: a. Testa
Explanation: The inner integument of a seed develops into the seed coat or testa, providing protection to the embryo within the seed.
7. What is the term for the scar left by the funiculus during seed formation?
a. Funiculus
b. Hilum
c. Raphe
d. Operculum
Answer: b. Hilum
Explanation: The hilum is the scar left on a seed by the detachment of the funiculus, through which the seed was attached to the ovary wall.
8. What causes cracking in tomato fruit?
a. Temperature fluctuations
b. these
c. High nitrogen level
d. Soil moisture fluctuations
Answer: b. All of these
Explanation: Cracking in tomato fruit can occur due to various factors, including temperature fluctuations, high nitrogen levels, and soil moisture fluctuations, or a combination of these factors.
9. What is the endospermlike tissue (2n) in a seed developing from the nucellus called?
a. Perisperm
b. Cotyledon
c. Endosperm
d. Mericarp
Answer: c. Endosperm
Explanation: Endosperm is the tissue in a seed that provides nutrients to the developing embryo and is formed from the fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization.
10. What may orthodox seeds be after dissemination?
a. Dormant
b. Nondormant
c. Quiescent
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Orthodox seeds may exhibit various states after dissemination, including dormancy, nondormancy, or quiescence, depending on environmental conditions and speciesspecific factors.
11. What leads to the reduction or elimination of dormancy in crop plants?
a. Domestication
b. Mutation
c. Hybridization
d. Acclimatization
Answer: d. Acclimatization
Explanation: Acclimatization, the process of adapting to a new environment, can lead to the reduction or elimination of dormancy in crop plants as they adjust to the prevailing conditions for germination and growth.
12. Dormancy due to factors within the embryo is:
a. Endogenous
b. Exogenous
c. Combination
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Endogenous
Explanation: Dormancy caused by factors internal to the embryo is termed endogenous dormancy.
13. Secondary dormancy in nondormant seeds is due to:
a. Temperature
b. Moisture
c. Aeration
d. Light
Answer: a. Temperature
Explanation: Secondary dormancy in nondormant seeds can be induced by factors such as temperature fluctuations.
14. Germination of undeveloped seeds is favored by:
a. Warm temperature (>20°C)
b. Gibberellic acid
c. Low temperature (<20°C)
d. a & b
Answer: d. a & b
Explanation: Germination of undeveloped seeds is favored by warm temperatures and the application of gibberellic acid.
15.During stratification, the most important factor is:
a. Temperature
b. Duration
c. Media
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: All of the mentioned factorstemperature, duration, and the stratification mediaare important during the stratification process.
16. Stage at which seed achieves its maximum dry weight and has maximum germination potential and vigor is:
a. Physiological maturity
b. Edible maturity
c. Harvest maturity
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Physiological maturity
Explanation: Physiological maturity is the stage at which the seed achieves its maximum dry weight and has maximum germination potential and vigor.
17. Seed vigor is affected by:
a. Time of storage
b. Type of seed stored
c. Storage environment
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Seed vigor can be influenced by various factors including the time of storage, type of seed, and storage environment.
18. Tetrazolium test to check seed viability is:
a. Chemical test
b. Enzyme test
c. Germination test
d. a & c
Answer: d. a & c
Explanation: The tetrazolium test is a chemical test used to assess seed viability, similar to the germination test.
19. Researchers describe seed moisture contents in terms of:
a. Dry weight
b. Wet weight
c. Percent weight
d. a & b
Answer: d. a & b
Explanation: Seed moisture content can be described in terms of both dry weight and wet weight.
20. Controlled inhibition of seed is termed as:
a. Priming
b. Soaking
c. Chilling
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Priming
Explanation: Controlled inhibition of seed germination is termed priming.
21. Celery and lettuce at high temperature become:
a. Photodormant
b. Thermodormant
c. Ecodormant
d. nondormant
Answer: b. Thermodormant
Explanation: Celery and lettuce at high temperatures exhibit thermodormancy, where their germination is inhibited.
22. Excessive soil moisture, late in the season cause:
a. Decrease in TSS, decrease in dry matter.
b. Increase in TSS, decrease in dry matter
c. Decrease in TSS, increase in dry matter
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Increase in TSS, decrease in dry matter
Explanation: Excessive soil moisture late in the season can lead to an increase in total soluble solids (TSS) but a decrease in dry matter production.
23. Most of the following category crops are shallow-rooted:
a. Summer
b. Winter
c. Offseason
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Summer, winter, and offseason crops are typically shallowrooted, making them more susceptible to drought stress.
24. Deeprooted vegetables require:
a. Less frequent irrigation
b. More water at each irrigation
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Both a & b
Explanation: Deep-rooted vegetables require less frequent irrigation due to their ability to access water from deeper soil layers, but they may require more water at each irrigation to meet their water needs.
25. Fruit of the following vegetables is edible:
a. Summer
b. Winter
c. Cruciferous
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: The fruit of summer, winter, and cruciferous vegetables is typically edible, providing nutrition and culinary versatility.
26. Mulches are mainly used to reduce:
a. Transpiration
b. Evaporation
c. Evapotranspiration
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Mulches help reduce water loss from the soil by reducing transpiration, evaporation, and overall evapotranspiration rates.
27. What type of mulches reduce soil temperature?
a. Organic mulch
b. Gray polythene
c. Black polythene
d. Transparent polythene
Answer: c. Black polythene
Explanation: Black polythene mulches absorb more solar radiation, leading to higher soil temperatures compared to other mulch types.
28. For hybrid seed production, _______ flowers are completely suppressed on female plants.
a. Staminate
b. Pistillate
c. Staminode
d. Alternate
Answer: b. Pistillate
Explanation: In hybrid seed production, pistillate (female) flowers are often completely suppressed on female plants to prevent selfpollination and maintain hybrid vigor.
29. Recommended cucumber cultivars under tunnel production technology are:
a. Monoecious
b. Gynoecious
c. Andromonoecious
d. Gynomonoecious
Answer: b. Gynoecious
Explanation: Gynoecious cucumber cultivars are recommended for tunnel production technology due to their high female flower production, leading to increased fruit yield.
30. Flowering in watermelon is unaffected by light duration as it is:
a. Shortday longnight plant
b. Longday shortnight plant
c. Dayneutral plant
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Dayneutral plant
Explanation: Watermelon is a dayneutral plant, meaning its flowering is not significantly influenced by day length.
31. Nature of pollination in cucurbits is:
a. Highly crosspollinated
b. Often crosspollinated
c. Highly selfpollinated
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Highly crosspollinated
Explanation: Cucurbits, including cucumbers and melons, are typically highly crosspollinated, relying on insects for pollination.
32. Ginger is commonly cultivated as:
a. Annual
b. Biennial
c. Perennial
d. Biannual
Answer: c. Perennial
Explanation: Ginger is commonly cultivated as a perennial plant, regrowing from rhizomes each year.
33. Crosspollination is essential in the following type of vegetables:
a. Monoecious
b. Dioecious
c. Gynoecious
d. Perigynous
Answer: b. Dioecious
Explanation: In dioecious vegetables, such as squash and spinach, crosspollination between male and female plants is essential for fruit production.
34. Crosspollination in plants bearing bisexual flowers is due to:
a. Dichogamy
b. Herkogamy
c. Heterostyly
d. All the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Crosspollination in plants with bisexual flowers can occur due to various mechanisms such as dichogamy, herkogamy, and heterostyly.
35. In anemophilous plants, pollens are disseminated by means of:
a. Insects
b. Water
c. Wind
d. Gravity
Answer: c. Wind
Explanation: Anemophilous plants rely on wind for the dispersal of pollen grains.
36. In pollen development, gametocides induce a problem of:
a. Sterility
b. Viability
c. Fertility
d. Mobility
Answer: a. Sterility
Explanation: Gametocides can induce sterility in pollen, preventing its ability to fertilize ovules.
37. Production of seeds without fertilization is termed as:
a. Parthenocarpy
b. Parthenogenesis
c. Gametogenesis
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Parthenogenesis
Explanation: Parthenogenesis refers to the production of seeds without fertilization, resulting in offspring with identical genetic material as the parent plant.
38. Most of the hybrid watermelon and cucumber are:
a. Triploid
b. Diploid
c. Aneuploid
d. Colchiploid
Answer: a. Triploid
Explanation: Most hybrid watermelon and cucumber varieties are triploid, containing three sets of chromosomes, which contribute to seedlessness in fruits.
39. Removal of offtype plants from a seed field is termed as:
a. Weeding
b. Rouging
c. Hoeing
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Rouging
Explanation: Rouging involves the removal of offtype or undesirable plants from a seed field to maintain genetic purity and quality.
40. The most important seed component affecting seed viability during storage is:
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Moisture
d. Food reserves
Answer: c. Moisture
Explanation: Moisture content is critical for seed viability during storage, as excessive moisture can lead to seed deterioration and loss of viability.
41. Potato is generally propagated through:
a. Seed potato
b. Potato seed
c. True Potato Seed
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Seed potato
Explanation: Potato is primarily propagated through seed potatoes, which are tubers saved from the previous season’s crop for planting.
42. Isolation during seed production is done by:
a. Types (Varieties)
b. Plantation at a distance
c. Zoning
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Isolation during seed production can be achieved through various methods, including planting different varieties, maintaining distance between crops, and zoning.
43. The most common pollinator insect in India is:
a. Syrphid fly
b. Bumblebees
c. Honey bees
d. House fly
Answer: c. Honey bees
Explanation: Honey bees are the most common pollinator insect in India and play a crucial role in pollination of many crops.
44. Seed production in biennial vegetables is mostly done by:
a. Seedtoseed method
b. In situ method
c. Replanting method
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Seedtoseed method
Explanation: Seed production in biennial vegetables is commonly achieved through the seedtoseed method, where seeds are produced from plants grown for two seasons.
45. Male sterility is not due to:
a. Genetic factor
b. Genome factor
c. Cytogenetic factor
d. Nutritional factor
Answer: d. Nutritional factor
Explanation: Male sterility in plants is primarily caused by genetic, genome, or cytogenetic factors rather than nutritional factors.
46. Hybrid vigor in vegetables is manifested by:
a. High yield
b. Uniformity in size
c. Uniformity in maturity
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Hybrid vigor, or heterosis, in vegetables often results in high yield, uniformity in size, and uniformity in maturity of the plants.
47. Watermelon for seed should be harvested when:
a. Tendrils wither
b. Skin color is green.
c. Skin color is pale yellow.
d. Vine dry out.
Answer: a. Tendrils wither
Explanation: Watermelons are typically harvested for seed production when the tendrils near the fruit stem begin to wither.
48. In India, vegetables for seed production are harvested by:
a. Manual method
b. Machines
c. Combine harvesters.
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Vegetables for seed production in India can be harvested using manual methods, machines, or combine harvesters, depending on the scale of production and available resources.
49. During storage of vegetable seeds, seed moisture should be:
a. Less than 10%
b. Equal to 10%
c. Greater than 10%
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Less than 10%
Explanation: To maintain seed viability during storage, seed moisture content should typically be less than 10%.
50. The poorest seed storage capacity is in:
a. Okra
b. Peas
c. Cucurbits
d. Onion
Answer: c. Cucurbits
Explanation: Cucurbit seeds, such as those from watermelon and cucumber, generally have poor storage capacity compared to seeds from other vegetables.
51. Nitrates are absorbed at pH below _______:
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Answer: b. 6
Explanation: Nitrates are most readily absorbed by plants when the soil pH is below 6.
52. Hormones which control apical dominance are:
a. Auxins
b. Cytokinins
c. Gibberellins
d. Polyamines
Answer: a. Auxins
Explanation: Auxins are hormones that control apical dominance, suppressing the growth of lateral buds and promoting the growth of the main shoot.
53.Tetraploid watermelon must be pollinated by _____ plants to produce a seedless watermelon:
a. Triploid
b. Aneuploid
c. Diploid
d. Tetraploid
Answer: a. Triploid
Explanation: Tetraploid watermelon plants must be pollinated by triploid plants to produce seedless watermelons.
54. Which vegetable cannot be grown as an offseason vegetable:
a. Tomato
b. Potato
c. Chillies
d. Cucumber
Answer: b. Potato
Explanation: Potatoes are typically not grown as offseason vegetables due to their specific growth requirements and susceptibility to frost.
55. Lower temperature than normal convert male flowers into perfect flowers in ________:
a. Date palm
b. Mango
c. Papaya
d. Citrus
Answer: c. Papaya
Explanation: Lower temperatures than normal can convert male flowers into perfect flowers in papaya plants.
56. Tomato is a _________ crop.
a. Selfpollinated
b. Insectpollinated
c. Oftenly crosspollinated.
d. Windpollinated
Answer: b. Insectpollinated
Explanation: Tomato plants are primarily pollinated by insects, although they are capable of selfpollination as well.
57. Turmeric is propagated by:
a. Corms
b. Seed
c. Rhizome
d. Bulb
Answer: c. Rhizome
Explanation: Turmeric is propagated by dividing and planting its rhizomes.
58. Sweet potato is propagated by:
a. Stem cuttings
b. Tubers
c. Roots
d. a & b
Answer: d. a & b
Explanation: Sweet potatoes can be propagated through stem cuttings or planting tubers.
59. Selfpollination is a form of:
a. Inbreeding
b. Outbreeding
c. Random mating
d. None of these
Answer: a. Inbreeding
Explanation: Selfpollination, where pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or plant, is a form of inbreeding.
60. Crosspollination is associated with:
a. Cleistogamy
b. Chasmogamy
c. Dichogamy
d. Apogamy
Answer: b. Chasmogamy
Explanation: Crosspollination typically occurs in chasmogamous flowers, where the reproductive organs are exposed and accessible to pollinating agents.
61. Completion of pollination and fertilization in an unopened flower bud is termed as:
a. Chasmogamy
b. Apogamy
c. Cleistogamy
d. Dichogamy
Answer: c. Cleistogamy
Explanation: Cleistogamy refers to the completion of pollination and fertilization within closed flower buds.
62. Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time refers to:
a. Homogamy
b. Chasmogamy
c. Cleistogamy
d. Dichogamy
Answer: a. Homogamy
Explanation: Homogamy refers to the simultaneous maturation of reproductive organs, such as anthers and stigma, within a flower.
63. Fertilization after the opening of the flower refers to:
a. Cleistogamy
b. Chasmogamy
c. Homogamy
d. Herkogamy
Answer: b. Chasmogamy
Explanation: Chasmogamy involves fertilization occurring after the flower has opened, allowing for crosspollination.
64. Male sterility promotes:
a. Autogamy
b. Allogamy
c. Homogamy
d. Chasmogamy
Answer: b. Allogamy
Explanation: Male sterility promotes allogamy, where pollen from one plant fertilizes the ovules of another plant.
65. Exposure of seed to low temperature before germination is termed as :
a. Scarification
b. Stratification
c. Vernalization
d. All of above
Answer: b. Stratification
Explanation: Stratification involves exposing seeds to low temperatures to break dormancy and promote germination.
66. Imbibed or germinated seeds subjected to cold temperature are termed as:
a. Scarification
b. Stratification
c. Vernalization
d. Sterilization
Answer: c. Vernalization
Explanation: Vernalization refers to the exposure of imbibed or germinated seeds to cold temperatures to induce flowering or other developmental processes.
67. Which of the following vegetable does not require specific low temperature before flowering:
a. Beetroot
b. Cabbage
c. Onion
d. Brinjal
Answer: d. Brinjal
Explanation: Brinjal (eggplant) does not typically require specific low temperatures before flowering compared to other crops listed.
68. Edible part of cauliflower is:
a. Flowers
b. Flower bud
c. Vegetative bud
d. Inflorescence
Answer: b. Flower bud
Explanation: The edible part of cauliflower is the flower bud before it fully opens.
69. Edible portion of cabbage is:
a. Terminal bud
b. Leaves
c. Leaves + inflorescence
d. All of above
Answer: c. Leaves + inflorescence
Explanation: In cabbage, both the leaves and the central dense cluster of leaves and undeveloped flowers (inflorescence) are edible.
70. Cole crops are:
a. Hardy
b. Half hardy
c. nonhardy
d. Semihardy
Answer: a. Hardy
Explanation: Cole crops, such as cabbage and cauliflower, are considered hardy vegetables, meaning they can withstand cooler temperatures.
71. Which of the following crop has the lowest water content:
a. Cucumber
b. Watermelon
c. Bottle gourd
d. Cauliflower
Answer: d. Cauliflower
Explanation: Among the options listed, cauliflower typically has the lowest water content.
72. The commercial variety of watermelon is:
a. Sugar baby
b. Red beauty
c. Red king
d. Sugary
Answer: a. Sugar baby
Explanation: Sugar baby is a popular commercial variety of watermelon known for its small size and sweet taste.
73. Vine of the bottle gourd crop is not staked during:
a. summer season
b. Rainy season
c. Early season
d. Late season
Answer: b. Rainy season
Explanation: Bottle gourd vines are typically not staked during the rainy season due to the risk of excess moisture and wind damage.
74. Which one is not the best source of protein:
a. Potatoes
b. Peas
c. Beans
d. Okra
Answer: a. Potatoes
Explanation: Potatoes are not considered a significant source of protein compared to peas, beans, and okra.
75. The cause of hotness in Chilies is:
a. Cucurbitacin
b. Capsaicin
c. Allicin
d. All of above
Answer: b. Capsaicin
Explanation: The hotness in chili peppers is primarily due to the presence of capsaicin.
76. Which crop is most susceptible to viral infection:
a. Chilies
b. Tomato
c. Onion
d. Brinjal
Answer: b. Tomato
Explanation: Tomato plants are highly susceptible to various viral infections, which can cause significant yield losses.
77. Which of the following vegetables has a dioecious behavior:
a. Onion
b. Cabbage
c. Bitter gourd
d. Spinach
Answer: c. Bitter gourd
Explanation: Bitter gourd exhibits a dioecious behavior, meaning male and female flowers are borne on separate plants.
78. Consecutive use of garlic will reduce the level of:
a. Cholesterol
b. Sugar
c. Uric acid
d. None of above
Answer: a. Cholesterol
Explanation: Garlic is believed to help reduce cholesterol levels when consumed regularly.
79. Bulb production in onion is dependent upon:
a. Temperature
b. Soil moisture
c. Day length
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Bulb production in onions is influenced by temperature, soil moisture, and day length.
80. Red color of carrot is due to:
a. Lycopene
b. Carotene
c. Anthocyanin
d. Propanene
Answer: c. Anthocyanin
Explanation: The red color of some carrots is due to the presence of anthocyanin pigments.
81. Color of carrot roots is affected by:
a. Soil temperature
b. Soil moisture
c. Soil texture
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: The color of carrot roots can be affected by various factors including soil temperature, moisture, and texture.
82. Radish belongs to family:
a. Cruciferae
b. Umbelliferae
c. Leguminosae
d. Poaceae
Answer: a. Cruciferae
Explanation: Radish belongs to the family Cruciferae (Brassicaceae).
83. For an early harvest, cucurbits are grown on:
a. Rocky soils
b. Sandy soils
c. Clayey soils
d. Organic soils
Answer: b. Sandy soils
Explanation: Sandy soils warm up quickly in spring, promoting early growth and harvest of cucurbits.
84. Tomato fruit is botanically a:
a. Berry
b. Pome
c. Drupe
d. Hip
Answer: a. Berry
Explanation: Botanically, tomato is classified as a berry.
85. The portion of axis below the cotyledons in a seed is:
a. Micropyle
b. Hypocotyl
c. Epicotyl
d. None of above
Answer: b. Hypocotyl
Explanation: The portion of the axis below the cotyledons in a seed is called the hypocotyl.
86. Which type of flowers cannot produce seeds and/or fruit?
a. Pistillate
b. Perfect
c. Hermaphrodite
d. Staminate
Answer: d. Staminate
Explanation: Staminate flowers lack the ovary and cannot produce seeds or fruit.
87. Degeneration of aboveground parts in ginger is due to:
a. Senescence
b. Maturity
c. Partial senescence
d. Over ripening
Answer: a. Senescence
Explanation: Degeneration of aboveground parts in ginger is due to the natural aging process known as senescence.
88. In spinach, pollination takes place by means of:
a. Water
b. Insects
c. Birds
d. Wind
Answer: b. Insects
Explanation: Pollination in spinach primarily occurs through the action of insects.
89. Tender crop cannot tolerate a minimum temperature of:
a. 2°C
b. 1°C
c. 0°C
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Tender crops are sensitive to low temperatures and cannot tolerate minimum temperatures of 2°C, 1°C, or 0°C.
90. Optimum temperature for coolseason vegetables is:
a. 2530°C
b. 2527°C
c. 1824°C
d. 1520°C
Answer: c. 1824°C
Explanation: Coolseason vegetables thrive in cooler temperatures, with an optimum range typically between 1824°C.
91. Which one is not an appropriate approach to control frost?
a. Avoidance
b. Reduction of heat loss
c. Addition of heat
d. Transmittance of control
Answer: d. Transmittance of control
Explanation: Transmittance of control is not a method used to control frost. Appropriate approaches include avoidance, reduction of heat loss, and addition of heat.
92. Tomato, chilies, and brinjal are grouped as:
a. Cole crops
b. Fruit crops
c. Solanaceous crops
d. Summer crops
Answer: c. Solanaceous crops
Explanation: Tomato, chilies, and brinjal belong to the Solanaceae family and are often grouped together as solanaceous crops.
93. Color development in tomato fruit is due to:
a. Lycopene
b. Carotenoid
c. Polypropylene
d. All of above
Answer: a. Lycopene
Explanation: The red color development in tomato fruit is primarily due to the presence of lycopene pigment.
94. Cucurbits consumed at the immature stage are grouped under:
a. Summer squashes
b. Winter squashes
c. Gourds
d. Pumpkins
Answer: a. Summer squashes
Explanation: Cucurbits consumed at the immature stage, such as zucchini and yellow squash, are grouped under summer squashes.
95. Almost all vegetables are dioecious with respect to flowers.
a. Summer
b. Winter
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: d. None of these
Explanation: Not all vegetables are dioecious; some have perfect flowers containing both male and female reproductive parts.
96. Term vineyard is used for:
a. Grape plantation
b. Citrus plantation
c. Mango plantation
d. None of these
Answer: a. Grape plantation
Explanation: A vineyard is a plantation of grapebearing vines used in winemaking.
97. Term viticulture is used for:
a. Grape cultivation
b. Citrus cultivation
c. Mango cultivation
d. None of these
Answer: a. Grape cultivation
Explanation: Viticulture is the science, production, and study of grapes, especially for winemaking.
98. Home gardening deals with vegetable production for:
a. Home consumption
b. For the local market
c. At the commercial level
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Home gardening involves growing vegetables for home consumption, for the local market, or even at a commercial level.
99. Truck gardening means vegetable production for:
a. Distant places
b. Industry
c. Local market
d. None of these
Answer: c. Local market
Explanation: Truck gardening refers to vegetable production primarily for the local market.
100. Tip burn of lettuce occurs at high air temperature when the soil is _______:
a. Cool
b. Dry
c. Hot
d. Wet
Answer: d. Wet
Explanation: Tip burn of lettuce is more likely to occur at high air temperatures when the soil is wet, leading to increased water uptake and calcium deficiency in the plant tissues.
Horticulture mcq Part 2nd
101. Organic crop cultivation is:
a. With fertilizers
b. Without fertilizers
c. With organic manures
d. None of these
Answer: c. With organic manures
Explanation: Organic crop cultivation involves the use of organic manures and methods without synthetic fertilizers.
102. Thinning in vegetables is practiced to maintain:
a. Plant x Plant distance
b. Line x Line distance
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of these
Explanation: Thinning in vegetables involves removing excess seedlings to maintain proper spacing both between plants and between rows.
103. Transplanting means:
a. Shifting of seedlings
b. Shifting of large plants
c. Shifting of potted plants
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Transplanting involves the shifting of seedlings, large plants, or potted plants from one location to another.
104. Shrubs fall in the category of:
a. 715 feet high
b. 25 feet high
c. More than 25 feet
d. None of these
Answer: a. 715 feet high
Explanation: Shrubs typically range from 7 to 15 feet in height.
105. Deciduous plants are mostly grown in:
a. Hilly area
b. In plains
c. Along rivers
d. None of these
Answer: a. Hilly area
Explanation: ––Deciduous plants, which shed their leaves annually, are commonly found in hilly areas.
106. Vine means climbing/trailing plants with:
a. Herbaceous stem
b. Woody stem
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of these
Explanation: Vines can have either herbaceous or woody stems and climb or trail along surfaces.
107. Monoecious plants have male and female sexes/flowers on:
a. Same plant
b. Different plants
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: a. Same plant
Explanation: Monoecious plants have separate male and female flowers on the same plant.
108. Hardy crops/plants are acclimatized against:
a. Frost
b. Extreme heat
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of these
Explanation: Hardy crops/plants are acclimatized to withstand both frost and extreme heat conditions.
109. True fruits developed from:
a. Ovary
b. Thalamus
c. Pericarp
d. All of these
Answer: a. Ovary
Explanation: True fruits develop from the ovary of the flower.
110. Drupe fruits have all the three ovarian layers:
a. Fused
b. Separated
c. Mixed
d. None of these
Answer: a. Fused
Explanation: Drupe fruits have all three ovarian layers (exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp) fused into a single structure.
111. Creeping vegetables crops are grown on:
a. Beds
b. Ridges
c. Flats
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Creeping vegetable crops can be grown on beds, ridges, or flats, depending on the specific requirements of the crop and the farming method used.
112. Mango is a:
a. Drupe fruit
b. Pome fruit
c. Berry fruit
d. Aggregate fruit
Answer: a. Drupe fruit
Explanation: Mango is classified as a drupe fruit, characterized by having a single large seed enclosed in a fleshy outer layer.
113. Citrus is a special type of:
a. Berry
b. Pome
c. Drupe
d. None of these
Answer: a. Berry
Explanation: Citrus fruits, such as oranges and lemons, are classified as berries in botanical terms due to their structure.
114. Dicots could be identified on the basis of:
a. Reticulate leaf venations
b. Parallel venations
c. No leaf venations
d. None of these
Answer: a. Reticulate leaf venations
Explanation: Dicotyledonous plants typically have reticulate (netlike) leaf venation, whereas monocotyledonous plants have parallel venation.
115. In binomial nomenclature system, the first name is:
a. Genus name
b. Species name
c. Family name
d. Subfamily name
Answer: a. Genus name
Explanation: In the binomial nomenclature system, the first name refers to the genus to which the organism belongs.
116. Most of the summer vegetables belong to the family:
a. Solanaceae
b. Cucurbitaceae
c. Malvaceae
d. Poaceae
Answer: b. Cucurbitaceae
Explanation: Cucurbitaceae is the family to which many summer vegetables like cucumbers, pumpkins, and melons belong.
117. Cultivar means:
a. Some cultivated variety
b. Discarded variety
c. Rejected variety
d. Approved variety
Answer: a. Some cultivated variety
Explanation: Cultivar stands for “cultivated variety,” denoting a plant variety that has been produced and maintained by cultivation.
118. Pears and beans are a rich source of:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Both
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both
Explanation: Pears and beans are both rich sources of carbohydrates and proteins.
119. Potato and sweet potato are well known for:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Vitamins
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Both potato and sweet potato are renowned for their high carbohydrate content, but they also contain proteins and various vitamins.
120. Leafy vegetables provide:
a. Iron
b. Carbohydrates
c. Protein
d. None of these
Answer: a. Iron
Explanation: Leafy vegetables are excellent sources of iron, along with other nutrients like vitamins and minerals.
121. Iron is a carrier of:
a. Oxygen
b. CO2
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: a. Oxygen
Explanation: Iron serves as a carrier of oxygen in the bloodstream, playing a crucial role in oxygen transport throughout the body.
122. Vitamin A is effective against:
a. Night blindness
b. Beriberi disease
c. Gum problems
d. None of these
Answer: a. Night blindness
Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency is a leading cause of night blindness, making it effective against this condition.
123. Carrot is a rich source of vitamin:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
Answer: a. Vitamin A
Explanation: Carrots are wellknown for their high content of betacarotene, which is converted into vitamin A in the body.
124. Cole crops are comprised of:
a. Cauliflower
b. Cabbage
c. Knol Khol
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Cole crops, also known as brassicas, include cauliflower, cabbage, and knol khol among others.
125. Salad crops are:
a. Lettuce
b. Radish
c. Cabbage
d. these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Lettuce, radish, and cabbage are commonly used as salad crops.
126. Which of the following crop is grown sexually:
a. Potato
b. Garlic
c. Onion
d. Turmeric
Answer: c. Onion
Explanation: Onion is grown sexually from seeds, while potato, garlic, and turmeric are propagated vegetatively.
127. Tomato varieties are mainly:
a. Indeterminate type
b. Determinate type
c. Both types
d. None of these
Answer: a. Indeterminate type
Explanation: Tomato varieties are primarily categorized into indeterminate types, which continue to grow and produce fruit throughout the growing season.
128. Fertigation refers to the application of fertilizer with:
a. Water
b. Rain
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: a. Water
Explanation: Fertigation is the practice of applying fertilizers through irrigation water.
129. In hydroponic system plants are grown in:
a. Water
b. Soil
c. Sand
d. Gravels
Answer: a. Water
Explanation: In a hydroponic system, plants are grown in a nutrientrich water solution instead of soil.
130. Through drip we can provide:
a. Water
b. Fertilizer
c. Both of the above
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of the above
Explanation: Drip irrigation allows for the precise delivery of both water and fertilizers directly to the plant roots.
131. Nitrogen in vegetables is needed for:
a. Vegetative growth
b. Ripening/maturity
c. Reproductive growth
d. None of these
Answer: a. Vegetative growth
Explanation: Nitrogen is essential for promoting vegetative growth, including leaf and stem development, in vegetables.
132. Seed potato seed has:
a. Dormancy
b. Rest period
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of these
Explanation: Seed potatoes may exhibit dormancy and a rest period before they can sprout and grow into new plants.
133. Carrot and coriander belong to the family:
a. Umbelliferae
b. Crucifereae
c. Cucurbitaceae
d. None of these
Answer: a. Umbelliferae
Explanation: Carrot and coriander both belong to the family Umbelliferae, also known as Apiaceae, characterized by umbrellalike clusters of flowers.
134. Potato belongs to the family:
a. Solanaceae
b. Umbelliferae
c. Cruciferae
d. None of these
Answer: a. Solanaceae
Explanation: Potato belongs to the family Solanaceae, along with other nightshade plants like tomatoes and peppers.
135. Melons belong to the family:
a. Cucurbitaceae
b. Solanaceae
c. Crucifereae
d. None of these
Answer: a. Cucurbitaceae
Explanation: Melons belong to the family Cucurbitaceae, which includes cucumbers, pumpkins, and squashes.
136. Melons have seeds in:
a. Cavity/centre
b. Scattered
c. Both types may be
d. None of these
Answer: a. Cavity/centre
Explanation: Melons typically have seeds clustered in the central cavity of the fruit.
137. Cantaloupe belongs to the group:
a. Cucurbits
b. Melons
c. Gourds
d. Squashes
Answer: b. Melons
Explanation: Cantaloupe is a type of melon, belonging to the group of melons.
138. Hybrid varieties of cucumber grown in tunnels are:
a. Parthenocarpic
b. Zygotic
c. Both types
d. None of these
Answer: a. Parthenocarpic
Explanation: Hybrid varieties of cucumber grown in tunnels are often parthenocarpic, meaning they can produce fruit without fertilization.
139. Staking of vines in the rainy season is done to avoid:
a. Insect attack
b. Disease attack
c. Sunscald
d. None of these
Answer: b. Disease attack
Explanation: Staking of vines in the rainy season helps to prevent diseases by keeping the plants off the wet ground, reducing the risk of fungal infections.
140. Optimum temperature for potato tuber formation is:
a. 2022°C
b. 2530°C
c. 2225°C
d. All of these
Answer: c. 2225°C
Explanation: The optimum temperature for potato tuber formation is typically around 2225°C.
141. Tuber initiation in potato starts after:
a. 7th week
b. 9th week
c. 5th week
d. 4th week
Answer: c. 5th week
Explanation: Tuber initiation in potatoes usually begins approximately five weeks after planting.
142. Color of carrot depends upon:
a. Age
b. Variety
c. Season
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: The color of carrots can be influenced by various factors, including their age, variety, and the season in which they are grown.
143. Splitting of carrot is due to:
a. Fresh manure
b. Heavy fertilizer
c. Less fertilizer
d. None of these
Answer: b. Heavy fertilizer
Explanation: Carrots may split or fork when exposed to excessive levels of fertilizer, particularly nitrogen, leading to rapid growth and expansion.
144. High temperature in chillies causes:
a. Flower drop
b. Fruit drop
c. Both of the above
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of the above
Explanation: High temperatures in chillies can lead to both flower drop and fruit drop, impacting the overall yield.
145. Early blight and late blight of potato are:
a. Fungal diseases
b. Viral diseases
c. Bacterial diseases
d. Disorders
Answer: a. Fungal diseases
Explanation: Both early blight and late blight of potato are caused by fungal pathogens.
146. Potato dormancy can be broken through:
a. Chemical treatment
b. Low temperature
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both of these
Explanation: Potato dormancy can be broken through chemical treatment or exposure to low temperatures.
147. Dormancy period in potato is about:
a. 2 Months
b. 1 Month
c. 3 Months
d. ½ Month
Answer: c. 3 Months
Explanation: The dormancy period in potatoes typically lasts about three months after harvest.
148. Seed rate/acre in potato for autumn crop is:
a. 9001100 Kg
b. 500 Kg
c. 400 Kg
d. 100 Kg
Answer: a. 9001100 Kg
Explanation: For the autumn crop, the recommended seed rate per acre in potato cultivation is usually between 900 to 1100 kilograms.
149. Potato cut tubers are used for planting during:
a. Autumn crop
b. Spring crop
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Answer: c. Both of above
Explanation: Potato cut tubers can be used for planting during both the autumn and spring crops.
150. Hollow heart of potato is a:
a. Disease
b. Disorder
c. Insect attack
d. Deficiency
Answer: b. Disorder
Explanation: Hollow heart of potato is a disorder characterized by the formation of a hollow cavity within the tuber, often due to irregular growth conditions.
151. Potato tubers become green if:
a. Exposed to light
b. Attacked by insect
c. Infected
d. None of these
Answer: a. Exposed to light
Explanation: Potato tubers turn green when exposed to light due to the accumulation of chlorophyll, indicating the presence of toxic alkaloids.
152. Virus free seeds of potato are produced in:
a. Hilly areas
b. Spring crop
c. In plains
d. Autumn crop
Answer: a. Hilly areas
Explanation: Virus-free seeds of potato are often produced in hilly areas where there is less likelihood of viral contamination from neighboring crops.
153. Okra belongs to family:
a. Malvaceae
b. Solanaceae
c. Cucurbitaceae
d. Chenopodiaceae
Answer: a. Malvaceae
Explanation: Okra belongs to the family Malvaceae, commonly known as the mallow family.
154. Desiree and Cardinal are varieties of:
a. Carrot
b. Potato
c. Radish
d. Peas
Answer: b. Potato
Explanation: Desiree and Cardinal are wellknown varieties of potatoes.
155. Which of the following vegetable is directly seeded in the field:
a. Chillies
b. Tomato
c. Brinjal
d. Peas
Answer: a. Chillies
Explanation: Chillies are typically directly seeded in the field rather than being transplanted as seedlings.
156. Buttoning is a disorder of:
a. Cauliflower
b. Peas
c. Potato
d. Tomato
Answer: a. Cauliflower
Explanation: Buttoning is a disorder commonly observed in cauliflower, where small heads with tightly packed curds develop prematurely.
157. Production of very small sized heads in cauliflower is called:
a. Buttoning
b. Belting
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: b. Belting
Explanation: Belting refers to the production of very small sized heads in cauliflower, differentiating it from buttoning, which involves premature development of heads.
158. Development of seed stalks earlier in biennial crops is called:
a. Bolting
b. Buttoning
c. Greening
d. None of these
Answer: a. Bolting
Explanation: Bolting refers to the premature development of seed stalks in biennial crops, which usually occurs earlier than expected.
159. Bolting in biennial crops is due to:
a. Low temperature exposure
b. High temperature exposure
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Answer: b. High temperature exposure
Explanation: Bolting in biennial crops is typically triggered by exposure to high temperatures.
160. Quality seed carrot is produced through:
a. Seed to seed method
b. Toping in situ method
c. Steeklings
d. None of these
Answer: a. Seed to seed method
Explanation: Quality seed carrot is usually produced through the seed to seed method, ensuring the maintenance of desirable traits in subsequent generations.
161. Blossom end rot of tomato is due to:
a. Infection/disease
b. Boron/Ca. deficiency
c. Insect attack
d. Nutritional deficiency
Answer: b. Boron/Ca. deficiency
Explanation: Blossom end rot of tomato is primarily caused by a deficiency in calcium or boron, leading to the decay of the blossom end of the fruit.
162. Vegetables belonging to the cross-pollinated group is:
a. Peas
b. Tomato
c. a & b
d. Cabbage
Answer: c. a & b
Explanation: Both peas and tomatoes belong to the crosspollinated group of vegetables, as they often require external pollination for seed production.
163. White brinjals are commonly grown for:
a. Ornamental purpose
b. Salad purpose
c. a + b
d. None of these
Answer: d. None of these
Explanation: White brinjals are not commonly grown for ornamental or salad purposes; they are typically grown for culinary use like their purple counterparts.
164. Tunnels for vegetable forcing are categorized as:
a. High type
b. Low type
c. Walkin type
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Tunnels for vegetable forcing can be categorized as high type, low type, or walkin type, depending on their design and structure.
165. Storage life of vegetables increased by the use of GA spray at harvesting time:
a. 50 ppm
b. 100 ppm
c. 200 ppm
d. None of the above
Answer: b. 100 ppm
Explanation: The storage life of vegetables can be increased by applying GA (gibberellic acid) spray at harvesting time, typically at a concentration of 100 ppm.
166. Dormancy of seeds are broken by:
a. GA
b. Ethylene
c. Water
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Water
Explanation: Dormancy of seeds is often broken by the absorption of water, a process known as imbibition, which initiates metabolic processes leading to germination.
167. Femaleness in cucumber is induced by:
a. GA
b. ABA
c. IBA
d. None of the above
Answer: b. ABA
Explanation: In cucumber, femaleness is induced by abscisic acid (ABA), which promotes the development of female flowers.
168. Maleness in cucumber is induced by:
a. GA
b. ABA
c. IBA
d. None of the above
Answer: d. None of the above
Explanation: Maleness in cucumber is not induced by any of the options provided. The development of male flowers is the default condition in cucumbers unless factors like hormonal imbalance or environmental stress lead to the development of hermaphroditic or female flowers.
169. Plants, protein, RNA, DNA contents are increased by:
a. Auxins
b. Adenine
c. Cytokinins
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Cytokinins
Explanation: Cytokinins are known to stimulate cell division and promote the synthesis of proteins, RNA, and DNA in plants.
170. Most of the cucurbits are:
a. Salt tolerant
b. Salt sensitive
c. a & b
d. None
Answer: b. Salt sensitive
Explanation: Most cucurbits are sensitive to salt, and high salt concentrations in the soil can adversely affect their growth and yield.
171. Most commonly used growth retardants are:
a. Phosphon
b. MH
c. Caumarin
d. None of above
Answer: b. MH
Explanation: MH (Maleic Hydrazide) is one of the most commonly used growth retardants in agriculture, often employed to control vegetative growth and promote flowering in certain crops.
172. Alar significantly increased fruit:
a. Size
b. Color
c. Weight
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Alar (Daminozide) is a growth regulator commonly used to increase fruit size, enhance coloration, and improve fruit firmness in various crops.
173. In green plants light favor the formation of:
a. Auxin
b. GA
c. ABA
d. IBA
Answer: b. GA
Explanation: In green plants, light stimulates the synthesis of gibberellic acid (GA), which is involved in various growth processes, including stem elongation and flowering.
174. Potato belongs to the family:
a. Umbliferae
b. Cucurbitacea
c. Solanaceae
d. Alliaceae
Answer: c. Solanaceae
Explanation: Potato belongs to the Solanaceae family, which also includes other important crops like tomato, eggplant, and pepper.
175. Parthenocarpic cucumber develops due to:
a. After pollination
b. Without pollination
c. None of above
d. a & b
Answer: b. Without pollination
Explanation: Parthenocarpic cucumber develops without pollination, resulting in the formation of seedless fruits.
176. Family Solanaceae consist of these crops:
a. Potato, Tomato, eggplant etc.
b. Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber
c. Turnip, Radish, Carrot etc.
d. None of above
Answer: a. Potato, Tomato, eggplant etc.
Explanation: The Solanaceae family includes crops like potato, tomato, eggplant, pepper, and tobacco, among others.
177. Which crop is reproduced sexually:
a. Ginger
b. Turmeric
c. Onion
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Onion
Explanation: Onion is reproduced sexually through the formation of seeds.
178. Which crop propagated by asexual means:
a. Sweet potato
b. Chillies
c. Cauliflower
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Sweet potato
Explanation: Sweet potato is typically propagated asexually through the use of cuttings or slips taken from the parent plant.
179. Vegetables which grow during summer:
a. Turnip, Radish
b. Cucumber, watermelon
c. Cauliflower, Cabbage
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Cucumber, watermelon
Explanation: Cucumber and watermelon are examples of vegetables that are typically grown during the summer season.
180. Vegetables which grow during winter:
a. Cole crops
b. Cucurbits
c. Root crops
d. a & c
Answer: d. a & c (Cole crops and Root crops)
Explanation: Cole crops (such as cauliflower and cabbage) and root crops (such as turnip and radish) are commonly grown during the winter season.
181. These vegetables are mainly raised through nursery:
a. Tomato, Chillies
b. Cucumber, watermelon
c. Radish, turnip
d. None of above
Answer: a. Tomato, Chillies
Explanation: Vegetables like tomato and chillies are often raised through nursery by first growing seedlings in controlled environments before transplanting them to the field.
182. Viscosity of the cytoplasm increases when temperature is:
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. Very High
Answer: c. High
Explanation: The viscosity of cytoplasm typically increases at higher temperatures due to changes in molecular motion and interactions within the cell.
183. Which vegetables is transplanted without earthen ball:
a. Cucumber
b. Watermelon
c. Cauliflower
d. None of above
Answer: c. Cauliflower
Explanation: Cauliflower is often transplanted without an earthen ball, as the seedlings are delicate and require careful handling during transplantation.
184. These vegetables are crosspollinated in nature:
a. Cauliflower, cabbage
b. Spinach, Peas
c. Radish
d. None of above
Answer: a. Cauliflower, cabbage
Explanation: Cauliflower and cabbage are crosspollinated in nature, meaning their flowers require pollen from another plant to produce seeds.
185. Which vegetable is selfpollinated:
a. Peas
b. Cucumber
c. Watermelon
d. Sponge gourd
Answer: a. Peas
Explanation: Peas are typically selfpollinated, as their flowers have both male and female reproductive organs and can pollinate themselves.
186. The Botanical name of sweet pepper is:
a. Capsicum annum
b. Capsicum fruitesence
c. Capsicum groosum
d. None of above
Answer: a. Capsicum annum
Explanation: The botanical name of sweet pepper is Capsicum annum.
187. The origin of peas is:
a. Africa
b. Asia
c. America
d. Europe
Answer: b. Asia
Explanation: Peas are believed to have originated in the region of modernday Afghanistan and Iran, which is part of Asia.
188. New growth of plants need _________ water for proper development:
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. Very High
Answer: c. High
Explanation: New growth of plants typically requires a higher amount of water for proper development as it supports the growth of leaves, stems, and roots.
189. Which vegetables consist of a higher concentration of Vitamin A:
a. Carrot
b. Fenugreek
c. Potato
d. Peas
Answer: a. Carrot
Explanation: Carrots are known for their high concentration of Vitamin A, primarily in the form of betacarotene, which is converted to Vitamin A in the body.
190. Which vegetable consists of more Vitamin C contents:
a. Tomato
b. Turnip
c. Radish
d. Cauliflower
Answer: a. Tomato
Explanation: Tomatoes are known to contain a relatively high concentration of Vitamin C compared to turnip, radish, and cauliflower.
191. Which vegetable has a high concentration of fats:
a. Sweet potato, potato
b. Watermelon, muskmelon
c. Cabbage, Cauliflower
d. None of the above
Answer: d. None of the above
Explanation: None of the listed vegetables (sweet potato, potato, watermelon, muskmelon, cabbage, cauliflower) are typically known for having a high concentration of fats. They are generally low in fat content.
192. Which of the family is also named as the Nightshade family:
a. Alliaceae
b. Cucurbitaceae
c. Solanaceae
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Solanaceae
Explanation: Solanaceae is commonly known as the Nightshade family, which includes plants like tomatoes, potatoes, eggplants, and peppers.
193. Which one of the following is a bulb crop:
a. Garlic
b. Potato
c. Ginger
d. Arum
Answer: a. Garlic
Explanation: Garlic is a bulb crop, as it develops underground bulbs that are harvested for consumption.
194. The botanical name of watermelon is:
a. Citrullus lanatus
b. Citrullus vulgaris
c. Citrullus fistulosis
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Citrullus lanatus
Explanation: The botanical name of watermelon is Citrullus lanatus.
195. Auxin antagonist compounds interact with auxins as:
a. Counteract
b. Increase
c. Decrease
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Counteract
Explanation: Auxin antagonist compounds counteract the effects of auxins, leading to a reduction or inhibition of auxin activity.
196. The compounds which inhibit the activity of auxins are known as:
a. Auxin antagonists
b. Antiauxins
c. Epinostic agents
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Antiauxins
Explanation: Antiauxins are compounds that inhibit the activity of auxins.
197. Compounds possessing hormonelike properties which have a small molecular weight are termed as:
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
d. None of these
Answer: d. None of these
Explanation: Compounds with hormonelike properties and small molecular weight are not specifically categorized under auxins, gibberellins, or cytokinins. They may include various other signaling molecules or chemical agents.
198. In plants, which growth regulators, when present in superoptimal concentrations, may also act as growth inhibitors?
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
d. None of above
Explanation: Excessive concentrations of cytokinins can sometimes exhibit inhibitory effects on plant growth, despite their typical role in promoting cell division and growth.
199. Where are auxins primarily present in plants?
a. Root tips
b. Stem end
c. Shoot tips
d. Leaf margins
Explanation: Auxins are mainly synthesized in the apical meristems of plants, including the root tips, where they play crucial roles in various growth and developmental processes.
200. What controls the direction of plant growth?
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Kinins
d. All of above
Explanation: Auxins play a significant role in controlling the direction of plant growth, influencing responses like phototropism and gravitropism.
201. Where are the growth regulators typically found in naturally parthenocarpy fruits?
a. High
b. Low
c. Intermediate
d. None of above
Explanation: Naturally parthenocarpic fruits, which develop without fertilization, generally contain lower levels of growth regulators compared to seeded fruits.
202. What factors contribute to the formation of auxins?
a. Age of apex
b. Light
c. Zinc
d. All of the above
Explanation: Several factors, including the age of the apex, exposure to light, and the availability of certain elements like zinc, influence the formation of auxins in plants.
203. From which source are cytokinins derived?
a. Abscibic acid
b. Kinin
c. Alar
d. Jasminoides
e. adenine
Explanation: Tumorous tissue cells, such as those found in crown gall tumors, are a promising source of cytokinins.
204. What role do auxins play in plant growth and development?
a. Delay in flower opening
b. Cell division
c. Reduction of preharvest fruit drop
d. All of the above
Explanation: Auxins play diverse roles in plant growth and development, including delaying flower opening, promoting cell division, and reducing fruit drop before harvest.
205. Which growth regulator possesses the ability to alter flower sex?
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Kinins
d. None of above
Explanation: Auxins can influence flower development and sex determination in certain plants.
206. Which growth regulator can release lateral buds from apical dominance?
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Kinins
d. None of above
Explanation: Auxins inhibit the outgrowth of lateral buds, but removing apical dominance can lead to the release of lateral buds.
207. What can retard leaf senescence?
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Kinins
d. Abscicic acid
Explanation: Gibberellins are known to delay leaf senescence and promote overall plant growth and development.
208. What do growth retardants primarily affect?
a. Cell division
b. Cell elongation
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: Growth retardants slow down plant growth by primarily affecting cell division and/or cell elongation.
209. What is the primary cause of the first and heaviest flower drop in fruit plants?
a. Lack of pollination
b. Structural defects in the flowers
c. Nonfertilization
d. All of the above
Explanation: The initial flower drop in fruit plants is often attributed to various factors, including structural abnormalities in the flowers, inadequate pollination, and failure of fertilization.
210. Which factors contribute significantly to fruit drop?
a. Moisture supply
b. Embryo abortion
c. Seed number of fruit
d. All of the above
Explanation: Fruit drop can be influenced by several factors, including embryo abortion, the number of seeds in the fruit, and the availability of moisture.
211. How can dormancy in seeds be broken?
a. Ethylene chlorohydrin
b. Thiourea
c. Ethylene acetylene
d. All of the above
Explanation: Dormancy in seeds can be overcome by various methods, including the use of chemicals like thiourea, ethylene chlorohydrin, and ethylene acetylene.
212. What are auxins as herbicides known for?
a. High toxicity to animals and humans
b. Broadspectrum action
c. Exerting their effects at high concentrations
d. All of the above
Explanation: Auxins used as herbicides are generally designed to have low toxicity to animals and humans, selective action, and efficacy at low concentrations.
213. What is Solanum melongena commonly known as locally?
a. Potato
b. Chilies
c. Tomato
d. Eggplant
Explanation: Solanum melongena is widely known as eggplant in various regions.
214. Why is hardening practiced in vegetables?
a. To enhance fruit color
b. To increase yield
c. To boost plant resistance
d. All of the above
Explanation: Hardening, or acclimatization, is a technique used in vegetable cultivation to improve plant resilience against environmental stressors, ultimately enhancing yield, fruit color, and overall plant health.
215. During fruit bud differentiation, what is the nitrogen content in plants?
a. Very high
b. Low
c. Medium
d. High
Explanation: Nitrogen levels in plants are relatively high during fruit bud differentiation, supporting the vigorous growth associated with this stage of development.
216. What does the botanical term “pomum” refer to?
a. Flower
b. Vegetable
c. None of these
d. Fruit
Explanation: In botanical terminology, “pomum” specifically denotes fruit, particularly fleshy fruit containing seeds enclosed in a core.
217. How many chromosomes does citrus typically have?
a. 8
b. 11
c. 9
d. 10
Explanation: Citrus plants typically have a chromosome number of 9.
218. What does “parthenocarpy” refer to?
a. Development of seeds without pollination
b. Fruit without pollination
c. Seedless fruits
d. None of the above
Explanation: Parthenocarpy refers to the development of fruit without fertilization or pollination, often resulting in seedless fruits.
219. Which term refers to the flower of grapes?
a. Recemose
b. Clyptra
c. Umbel
d. None
Explanation: The correct term for the flower of grapes is “b. Clyptra,” which specifically denotes the protective cap or hood covering the developing flower bud.
220. When does the anthesis of grapes complete?
a. Pedicel fall
b. None
c. Cap fall
d. Calyx drop
Explanation: The anthesis of grapes completes at “c. Cap fall,” indicating the point when the protective cap (calyptra) over the flower falls off, allowing the flower to fully open and undergo pollination.
221. What is the name of a date palm leaf?
a. Simple leaf
b. Pinna
c. Long leaf
d. Frond
Explanation: The leaf of a date palm is referred to as “d. Frond,” which describes the characteristic large, compound leaf structure of palm trees.
222. Which type of fruit tree is dioecious and monocot?
a. Date palm
b. Pomegranate
c. Papaya
d. Banana
Explanation: The correct option is “a. Date palm,” as it is a dioecious (having male and female flowers on separate trees) and monocot (having parallelveined leaves and floral parts in multiples of three) fruit tree.
223. Which fruit tree is dicot and dioecious?
a. Date palm
b. Mango
c. Banana
d. Papaya
Explanation: The correct answer is “d. Papaya,” as it is a dicotyledonous plant (dicot) and dioecious, meaning male and female flowers are produced on separate plants.
224. Which fruit plant is both monocot and monoecious?
a. Date palm
b. Papaya
c. Banana
d. None
Explanation: The correct choice is “c. Banana,” as it is a monocotyledonous plant (monocot) and monoecious, with both male and female flowers borne on the same plant.
225. In what range can tree fruits tolerate soil pH?
a. 4.58.5
b. 5.58.0
c. 5.08.0
d. 5.58.5
Explanation: Tree fruits can tolerate a soil pH in the range of “b. 5.58.0,” providing optimal conditions for their growth and development.
226. How is water potential in the rhizosphere measured?
a. Hygrometer
b. Thermometer
c. Tensiometer
d. pH meter
Explanation: The correct tool for measuring water potential in the rhizosphere is “c. Tensiometer,” which gauges the tension or pressure of water in the soil.
227. What is the technical term for a grape plant?
a. Vine
b. Liana
c. Creeper
d. Bush
Explanation: The accurate term for a grape plant is “a. Vine,” reflecting its climbing or trailing growth habit.
228. What category does a guava plant fall under?
a. Herb
b. Tree
c. Bush
d. None
Explanation: A guava plant is categorized as “b. Tree,” as it typically grows into a woody perennial structure with a defined trunk and canopy.
229. Which subfamily does citrus belong to?
a. Clausnea
b. Citrae
c. Citrea
d. Aurantioideae
Explanation: Citrus belongs to the subfamily “d. Aurantioideae,” which encompasses various citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, and limes.
230. What is the botanical classification of citrus fruit?
a. Pome fruit
b. Hesperidium berry
c. Climacteric fruit
d. None
Explanation: The correct answer is “b. Hesperidium berry.” Citrus fruits, such as oranges and lemons, are classified as hesperidium berries due to their characteristic structure with a tough, leathery rind containing multiple juicefilled vesicles.
231. From which part of the flower does the apple fruit develop?
a. Thalamus
b. Ovary
c. Ovule
d. Pedicel
Explanation: The correct answer is “a. Thalamus.” In apples, the fleshy part of the fruit develops from the enlarged receptacle or thalamus of the flower.
232. How many whorls does a complete flower have?
a. 5 whorls
b. 3 whorls
c. 2 whorls
d. 4 whorls
Explanation: A complete flower typically consists of four whorls: the calyx, corolla, androecium (male reproductive parts), and gynoecium (female reproductive parts). Therefore, the correct answer is “d. 4 whorls.”
233. What type of seed is a kinnow seed?
a. Monoembryonic
b. Polyembryonic
c. Multiembryonic
d. None
Explanation: Kinnow seeds are typically “b. Polyembryonic,” meaning they contain multiple embryos within a single seed.
234. What are apomictic seedlings also known as?
a. Sexual seedlings
b. Nucellar seedlings
c. Embryonic seedlings
d. None
Explanation: The correct term for apomictic seedlings is “b. Nucellar seedlings.” These seedlings develop from the nucellus tissue without fertilization, producing genetically identical offspring.
235. What type of fruit is a cherry?
a. Berry fruit
b. Stone fruit
c. Pome fruit
d. Drupe
Explanation: Cherries are classified as “d. Drupes,” characterized by a single seed enclosed in a hard, stonelike pit surrounded by fleshy fruit tissue.
236. What type of seed does a strawberry fruit contain?
a. Achene
b. True seed
c. Viable seed
d. Aborted seed
Explanation: The correct answer is “a. Achene.” Each seedlike structure on the surface of a strawberry fruit is technically an achene containing a single seed.
237. How is a mulberry fruit classified?
a. Berry
b. Multiple
c. Aggregate
d. Peppo
Explanation: Mulberries are classified as “c. Aggregate” fruits, as they develop from multiple ovaries within a single flower, forming a clustered structure.
238. Which family contains the largest number of fruit plants?
a. Rosaceae
b. Citrea
c. Leguminoseae
d. Vitaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is “a. Rosaceae.” This family encompasses a wide range of fruitbearing plants, including apples, pears, strawberries, and raspberries.
239. At what temperature does chilling injury occur in plants?
a. <4°C
b. <5°C
c. <8°C
d. <9°C
Explanation: Chilling injury typically occurs in plants at temperatures below “c. <8°C,” leading to physiological damage and impaired growth processes.
240. Which family includes both mango and pistachio?
a. Anacardiaceae
b. Mangifera
c. Gramineae
d. None
Explanation: The correct answer is “a. Anacardiaceae.” Both mango (Mangifera indica) and pistachio (Pistacia vera) belong to the family Anacardiaceae, which includes a variety of flowering plants known for their economically important fruits and nuts.
243. What is another common name for date palm?
a. Century palm
b. Wild palm
c. Feather palm
d. Domestic palm
Explanation: Date palm is also known as “c. Feather palm” due to the feathery appearance of its leaves.
244. At what stage is the date fruit harvested for curing?
a. Rutab stage
b. Doka stage
c. Dung stage
d. None
Explanation: The correct answer is “a. Rutab stage.” Date fruits are harvested at the rutab stage, when they are ripe and have begun to soften, for curing or drying.
245. What is a single unit of a banana fruit called?
a. Finger
b. Hand
c. Heart
d. None
Explanation: A single unit of a banana fruit is called a “a. Finger,” while a bunch of bananas is referred to as a “b. Hand.”
246. To which family does peach belong?
a. Rosaceae
b. Rutaceae
c. Palmaceae
d. None
Explanation: Peaches belong to the “a. Rosaceae” family, which includes many other fruitbearing plants like apples, pears, and strawberries.
247. Is the kumquat fruit edible as a whole?
a. Yes, whole fruit
b. Without peel
c. With seed
d. None
Explanation: Kumquat fruits can be consumed “a. Yes, whole fruit,” including the peel, which is sweet, while the inner flesh is tart.
248. What is guava a rich source of?
a. Vitamin C
b. Pectin
c. Both a & b
d. Sugar
Explanation: Guava is a rich source of “c. Both Vitamin C and Pectin.” It contains high levels of ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) and dietary fiber (pectin).
249. Which is a common rootstock for citrus trees in Punjab?
a. Rough lemon
b. Sour orange
c. Sweet orange
d. Sweet lime
Explanation: The common rootstock for citrus trees in Punjab is “b. Sour orange,” known for its compatibility with various citrus varieties and adaptability to different soil conditions.
250. In which variety of date palm is pruning a regular practice?
a. Khudrawi
b. Hillawi
c. Deglet Noor
d. Hillini
Explanation: Pruning is a regular practice in “b. Hillawi” variety of date palm to maintain its growth, shape, and productivity.
251. What problem may excessive nitrogen in citrus plants cause?
a. Leaf drop
b. Lodging
c. Flower drop
d. Fruit drop
Explanation: Excessive nitrogen in citrus plants may lead to “d. Fruit drop,” among other issues like increased vegetative growth and susceptibility to pests and diseases.
252. Which fruit crops commonly experience the issue of alternate bearing?
a. Mango
b. Apple
c. Citrus
d. All of above
Explanation: The correct answer is “d. All of above.” Mangoes, apples, and citrus fruits are all prone to alternate bearing, where trees produce a heavy crop one year followed by a lighter crop or no crop the next year.
253. Up to what pH level can citrus tolerate salinity?
a. pH 9.0
b. pH 8.5
c. pH 7.5
d. pH 4.5
Explanation: Citrus can tolerate salinity levels up to “c. pH 7.5,” allowing them to grow in moderately saline soils.
254. What is the male inflorescence of Cashew nut and Walnut called?
a. Catkins
b. Rachis
c. Cyme
d. None
Explanation: The correct term for the male inflorescence of Cashew nut and Walnut is “a. Catkins,” which are elongated clusters of flowers.
255. Which fruit tree is “Hari” commonly used as a rootstock for?
a. Walnut
b. Apricot
c. Mulberry
d. None
Explanation: “Hari” is a rootstock commonly used for “a. Walnut” trees, providing support and influencing characteristics of the grafted tree.
256. Where do apples typically bear fruit?
a. Shoots
b. Sprigs
c. Spurs
d. Twigs
Explanation: Apples bear fruit primarily on “c. Spurs,” which are short, stubby branches that develop on older wood.
257. What is the bearing habit of mango trees?
a. Terminal
b. Lateral
c. Axillary
d. Basal
Explanation: Mango trees have an “a. Terminal” bearing habit, meaning that flowers and fruit are produced at the ends of terminal branches.
258. What does polyembryony refer to?
a. One embryo
b. Two embryos
c. More than two embryos
d. More than three embryos
Explanation: Polyembryony refers to “c. More than two embryos,” where multiple embryos develop from a single seed, commonly observed in some citrus fruits.
259. Which fruit tree does the proverb “Head in fire, foot in water” refer to?
a. Olive
b. Coconut
c. Date palm
d. None
Explanation: The proverb “Head in fire, foot in water” refers to “c. Date palm,” highlighting its ability to thrive in both hot, arid conditions and moist, waterlogged soil.
260. Are pears universally selfcompatible or selfincompatible?
a. Universally selfcompatible
b. Universally selfincompatible
c. Gross compatible
d. None
Explanation: Pears are typically “b. Universally selfincompatible,” requiring crosspollination between different pear varieties to set fruit successfully.
261. What is quince commonly used as a rootstock for?
a. Peach
b. Plum
c. Pear
d. Pomegranate
Explanation: Quince is commonly used as a rootstock for “c. Pear” trees due to its compatibility and influence on tree vigor and fruit characteristics.
262. What is the function of parienth?
a. Calyx and Corolla
b. Pedicel and Thalamus
c. Stamen and Stigma
d. Style and Ovary
Explanation: Parienth refers to the combined structure of “a. Calyx and Corolla,” which protect the reproductive organs of the flower.
263. How is a spur defined?
a. Mature productive wood
b. Immature juvenile wood
c. Both a & b
d. Mature wood with rosette head
Explanation: A spur is defined as “a. Mature productive wood,” which bears flowers and fruit in subsequent growing seasons, often characterized by its short, stout appearance.
264. What does the term “chimera” refer to?
a. Somatic cell fusion
b. Gametic cell fusion
c. Undifferentiated cell
d. None
Explanation: “a. Somatic cell fusion” describes the phenomenon known as chimera, where cells with different genetic compositions fuse together to form a single organism.
265. Metaxenia refers to the impact of pollen on which part of the plant?
a. Pollen on seed
b. Pollen on fruit
c. Pollen on ovule
d. Pollen on ovary
Explanation: Metaxenia refers to the impact of “b. Pollen on fruit,” influencing the characteristics and qualities of the fruit produced.
266. At what stage of development does senescence occur?
a. Tissue decay
b. Tissue multiplication
c. Tissue vigor
d. Tissue ripening
Explanation: Senescence is the stage of development characterized by “a. Tissue decay,” marking the aging and eventual death of plant tissues.
267. Where is rest observed as a natural process?
a. Seed
b. Seed & plant
c. Plant
d. Tropical plant
Explanation: Rest is a natural process observed in “c. Plant,” particularly in deciduous trees, where growth activity slows down during certain seasons.
268. What is the main cause of dormancy in plants and seeds?
a. Environmental factor
b. Physiological factor
c. Both a & b
d. None
Explanation: Dormancy in plants and seeds is mainly due to “c. Both environmental and physiological factors,” including temperature, light, and hormonal regulation.
269. Which part of the plant is the petiole?
a. Flower
b. Leaf
c. Inflorescence
d. Twig
Explanation: The petiole is a structural part of a “b. Leaf,” connecting the leaf blade to the stem and facilitating nutrient transport and gas exchange.
270. Where is the micropyle located?
a. Stomata
b. Seed
c. Ovary
d. Flower
Explanation: The micropyle is an opening in the “b. Seed,” allowing for water uptake and gas exchange during germination.
271. What part of the date palm fruit is referred to as the skirt?
a. Exocarp
b. Mesocarp
c. Endocarp
d. Seed
Explanation: The “a. Exocarp” of the date palm fruit is commonly known as the skirt, which protects the developing fruit.
272. What is the recommended matrix height in citrus cultivation?
a. 4 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 9 inches
d. 12 inches
Explanation: The recommended matrix height in citrus cultivation is typically around “b. 6 inches,” providing sufficient soil depth for root development while avoiding waterlogging.
273. Which rootstock is commonly used for sweet orange in NWFP?
a. Sour orange
b. Rough lemon
c. Citrumello
d. None
Explanation: The common rootstock used for sweet orange in NWFP is “a. Sour orange,” providing compatibility and desirable characteristics for grafting sweet orange varieties.
274. What causes berry splitting in citrus and strawberry?
a. High temperature
b. Low moisture
c. High sunlight
d. High air pressure
Explanation: Berry splitting in citrus and strawberry is primarily due to “b. Low moisture,” where rapid uptake of water causes fruit tissues to expand and rupture.
275. What type of embryonic development do most mango varieties in India exhibit?
a. Monoembryonic
b. Polyembryonic
c. Mono to Polyembryonic
d. None
Explanation: Most mango varieties in India are classified as “b. Polyembryonic,” meaning they produce multiple embryos in each seed.
276. How are apple rootstocks commonly propagated asexually?
a. Grafting
b. Budding
c. Stooling
d. Layering
Explanation: Apple rootstocks are commonly propagated asexually through “c. Stooling,” a method where a portion of the plant’s stem is buried underground to encourage the development of adventitious roots.
277. In addition to seeds, how else can lemons and limes be propagated?
a. Layering
b. Cuttings
c. Both a & b
d. None
Explanation: Lemons and limes can be propagated through “c. Both layering and cuttings,” offering alternative methods to seed propagation for reproducing desired cultivars.
278. Which of the following are common rootstocks used for apple cultivation in india?
a. M7
b. M9
c. Crab apple
d. All three (a,b,c)
Explanation: Common rootstocks for apple cultivation in india include options like “a. M7” and “b. M9,” which offer different characteristics and are chosen based on specific needs and conditions.
279. What does systematic pomology primarily focus on?
a. Commercial fruit production
b. Nomenclature
c. Domestic production
d. Export production
Explanation: Systematic pomology primarily deals with “b. Nomenclature,” the classification and naming of fruits, aiding in the organization and study of fruit varieties.
280. How many species are included in the Genus Fortunella?
a. 7 species
b. 6 species
c. 5 species
d. 4 species
Explanation: The Genus Fortunella encompasses “c. 5 species,” including kumquats and related citrus fruits.
281. How many species are there in the Genus Poncirus?
a. 1 species
b. 3 species
c. 6 species
d. 16 species
Explanation: The Genus Poncirus consists of “a. 1 species,” commonly known as the trifoliate orange.
282. What is the best time for propagating fruit plants in subtropical regions?
a. Spring season
b. Spring & autumn season
c. Summer season
d. Summer and winter season
Explanation: The best time for propagating fruit plants in subtropical regions is typically during “b. Spring and autumn seasons,” when environmental conditions are favorable for root establishment and growth.
283. During the summer crop of guava, which insect is a major pest?
a. White fly
b. Firefly
c. Fruit fly
d. Drosophila fly
Explanation: The major insect attacking the summer crop of guava is “c. Fruit fly,” which can cause significant damage to the fruit.
284. What type of pruning does a grapevine typically require?
a. Bulk pruning
b. Light pruning
c. Moderate pruning
d. No pruning
Explanation: A grapevine typically requires “c. Moderate pruning” to maintain its health, promote fruit production, and manage vine growth.
285. What is a selfsupporting vine type stem called?
a. Vine
b. Shrub
c. Herb
d. Liana
Explanation: A selfsupporting vine type stem is called a “b. Shrub,” as it does not require external support structures for upright growth.
286. What is the edible part of a pomegranate?
a. Seed
b. Vesicles
c. Mesocarp
d. Aril
Explanation: The edible part of a pomegranate is the “b. Vesicles,” which contain the juicy seeds surrounded by a pulpy membrane.
287. How are apples and pears classified in terms of fruit type?
a. Drupe
b. Pome
c. Berry
d. Hesperidium
Explanation: Apples and pears are classified as “b. Pome” fruits, characterized by a core containing seeds surrounded by a firm, edible flesh derived from the receptacle.
288. Nut fruits are derived from which type of flower?
a. Epigynous flower
b. Hypogynous flower
c. Perigynous flower
d. Hypo and perigynous flower
Explanation: Nut fruits are derived from “a. Epigynous flowers,” where the ovary is positioned below the attachment of other floral parts.
289. What type of fruit is a strawberry?
a. Multiple
b. Achene
c. Berry
d. Aggregate
Explanation: A strawberry is a type of “d. Aggregate” fruit, where multiple ovaries from a single flower develop into small, seedlike achenes embedded in a fleshy receptacle.
290. In which region is the coldest climate suitable for growing citrus?
a. U.S.A.
b. New Zealand
c. Australia
d. India
Explanation: The coldest region suitable for growing citrus is typically in “b. New Zealand,” where cooler temperatures support citrus cultivation.
291. Which three genera are important in the Anacardiaceae family?
a. Mangifera, Pistacia, and Cocos
b. Eugenia, Anacardium, Pistacia
c. Pistacia, Mangifera, Anacardium
d. Psidium, Aurantium, Mangifera
Explanation: The three important genera in the Anacardiaceae family are “c. Pistacia, Mangifera, Anacardium,” which include pistachios, mangoes, and cashews, respectively.
292. What is the chromosome number of mango?
a. n=20
b. n=17
c. n=8
d. n=11
Explanation: The chromosome number of mango is “b. n=17,” indicating the number of chromosomes in each cell of the mango plant.
293. What are the unfertile stamens of mango called?
a. Sterile
b. Indehiscent
c. Staminoides
d. Pistilloids
Explanation: The unfertile stamens of mango are called “c. Staminoides,” which do not produce viable pollen.
294. How many fertile stamens does a mango flower typically carry?
a. One
b. One or two
c. Three
d. One or three
Explanation: A mango flower typically carries “d. One or three” fertile stamens, which produce viable pollen for fertilization.
295. At what low temperature regime in summer does mango growth stop?
a. 35°F
b. 30°F
c. 20°F
d. 18°F
Explanation: Mango growth typically stops at a low temperature regime of around “c. 20°F” during summer, as temperatures below this level can inhibit growth processes.
296. How does the Canary date differ from cultivated date?
a. Length of fronds
b. Arrangement of pinnules
c. Thickness of stem
d. Area of origin
Explanation: The Canary date differs from the cultivated date in terms of “a. Length of fronds,” with the fronds of the Canary date being longer compared to those of cultivated varieties.
297. Why are wild dates (P. sylvestris) important?
a. Nutritious fruit
b. Sweetness of fruit
c. Sugar production
d. Medicinal value.
Explanation: Wild dates (P. sylvestris) are important due to their “d. Medicinal value,” offering various health benefits beyond their nutritional value or sweetness.
298. In which country is the maximum production of date palm recorded?
a. Iran
b. Algeria
c. U.S.A.
d. Iraq
Explanation: The maximum production of date palm is recorded in “d. Iraq,” where favorable climatic conditions support extensive cultivation.
299. What family does apple belong to?
a. Ancardiaceae
b. Palmaea
c. Rutaceae
d. Rosaceae
Explanation: Apple belongs to the “d. Rosaceae” family, which includes many other fruits like strawberries, cherries, and peaches.
300. Which region is apple primarily a fruit of?
a. Temperate region
b. Subtropical
c. Tropical
d. Temperate and subtropical
Explanation: Apples are primarily fruits of the “a. Temperate region,” although some varieties can also be grown in subtropical climates.
301. How many carpels does an apple flower typically have?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Seven
d. One
Explanation: An apple flower typically has “d. One” carpel, which forms the core of the fruit after fertilization.
302. Date growth does not cease if the temperature does not fall below:
a. 0°C
b. 10°C
c. 18°C
d. 20°C
Explanation: Date growth does not cease if the temperature does not fall below “c. 18°C,” as date palms are adapted to warm climates and require relatively high temperatures for continuous growth.
303. What is the name of the seedless date palm variety?
a. Hassaku
b. Hillai
c. Ajwa
d. None
Explanation: The seedless date palm variety is “d. None,” as natural seedlessness is not typical in date palms.
304. In which date palm variety is pruning carried out?
a. Deglet Noor
b. Hillawi
c. Khudrawi
d. Ajwa
Explanation: Pruning is typically carried out in the “b. Hillawi” variety of date palms to maintain plant health and productivity.
305. How is date palm primarily propagated?
a. Suckers
b. Seeds
c. Offshoots
d. None
Explanation: Date palm is primarily propagated through “c. Offshoots,” which are small shoots that develop from the base of the mother palm.
306. What is the seed of a mushroom called?
a. Spawn
b. Seed
c. Button
d. None
Explanation: The seed of a mushroom is called “a. Spawn,” which is used to initiate the growth of mushrooms in a suitable substrate.
307. Where are mushrooms typically cultivated?
a. On soil
b. Hydroponic
c. Dead mass
d. On trees
Explanation: Mushrooms are typically cultivated on “c. Dead mass,” such as compost or other organic materials, rather than on soil or hydroponic systems.
308. Which disease commonly infects banana plants?
a. Banana bunchy top
b. Anthracnose of stem
c. Rhizome wilt
d. None
Answer: a. Banana bunchy top
Explanation: Banana plants are commonly infected with the Banana bunchy top virus, causing stunted growth and yellowing of leaves.
309. What is a cluster of banana fruit called?
a. Hand
b. Heart
c. Finger
d. All of above
Answer: a. Hand
Explanation: A cluster of banana fruit is referred to as a “a. Hand.”
310. How many times does a banana plant typically bear fruit in its lifetime?
a. Once in life
b. Twice in life
c. Multiple times
d. All of above
Answer: c. Multiple times
Explanation: Banana plants typically bear fruit multiple times during their lifetime, producing new fruit bunches after each harvest.
311. How is banana propagation primarily carried out?
a. Sword sucker
b. Water suckers
c. Aerial suckers
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Banana propagation can be carried out through various methods, including sword suckers, water suckers, and aerial suckers.
312. What type of fruit is a banana?
a. Nonclimacteric
b. Climacteric
c. Recurrent climacteric
d. All of above
Answer: b. Climacteric
Explanation: Banana is a climacteric fruit, meaning it undergoes a ripening process characterized by increased respiration and ethylene production.
313. Are apple and pear part of the same classification?
a. Same genus
b. Different subgenus
c. Different genera
d. All of above
Answer: c. Different genera
Explanation: Apple (genus: Malus) and pear (genus: Pyrus) belong to different genera within the Rosaceae family.
314. Which mineral is apple a rich source of?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. VitaA
d. Iron
Answer: d. Iron
Explanation: Apples are a rich source of various minerals, including iron, which is essential for various physiological functions.
315. How many flowers typically form a cluster on apple spurs?
a. 3 Flowers
b. 4 Flowers
c. 5 Flowers
d. More than all above
Answer: d. More than all above
Explanation: Apple flowers typically form clusters with more than five flowers on spurs.
316. How can an apple flower be distinguished from a pear flower?
a. Due to its color
b. Due to its size
c. a & b
d. None
Answer: c. a & b
Explanation: Apple and pear flowers can be distinguished by both their color and size, as they exhibit slight differences in appearance.
317. Why is honey extracted from almond flowers considered inedible?
a. Amygdalus factor
b. Oxalic acid
c. a & b
d. None
Answer: a. Amygdalus factor
Explanation: Honey extracted from almond flowers contains amygdalus factor, a compound that can be toxic, making it inedible.
318. Are almond and peach part of the same classification?
a. Same genus and spp.
b. Some germs & different spp.
c. Different genus & different spp.
d. All of above
Answer: c. Different genus & different spp.
Explanation: Almond (genus: Prunus, species: dulcis) and peach (genus: Prunus, species: persica) belong to different genera within the Rosaceae family and are different species.
319. Different mango varieties can be distinguished based on:
a. New leaf colour
b. Panicle length
c. Number of male flowers
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Mango varieties can be distinguished by various characteristics such as the colour of new leaves, the length of the panicles, and the number of male flowers present in the inflorescence.
320. Salttolerant fruit plants include:
a. Date and Ber
b. Ber and Guava
c. a & b
d. None
Answer: c. a & b
Explanation: Both date palm (Phoenix dactylifera) and ber (Ziziphus mauritiana) are known for their tolerance to saline conditions.
321. The adopted planting system of orchards in India is:
a. Square system
b. Rectangular system
c. Hexagonal system
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Orchards in India may be planted using various systems, including the square, rectangular, and hexagonal systems, depending on factors such as land layout and management practices.
322. RCBD stands for:
a. Repeated control block design
b. Reported complete block design
c. Randomized complete block design
d. All of above
Answer: c. Randomized complete block design
Explanation: RCBD stands for Randomized Complete Block Design, a common experimental design used in agricultural research to minimize variability and ensure randomization of treatments within blocks.
323. Nitrogen in a plant sample is estimated by:
a. Refreshrometer
b. Kjeldahl’s apparatus
c. Spectrophotometer
d. All of above
Answer: b. Kjeldahl’s apparatus
Explanation: Nitrogen content in plant samples is typically estimated using Kjeldahl’s apparatus, a laboratory method for determining nitrogen concentration through digestion and titration.
324. Jaman has medicinal value against:
a. Diabetes
b. Cancer
c. Blindness
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Jaman, also known as Indian blackberry (Syzygium cumini), is believed to have medicinal properties that may help in managing conditions such as diabetes, cancer, and certain eye disorders.
325. Chinese layering is practiced in:
a. Mulberry
b. Strawberry
c. Litchi
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Chinese layering, a propagation technique, can be applied to various fruit plants including mulberry, strawberry, and litchi, among others.
326. Abscission in fruit occurs due to:
a. Excessive abscissic acid
b. Excessive Ghrtamic acid
c. Excessive Lactic acid
d. Excessive Citric acid
Answer: a. Excessive abscissic acid
Explanation: Abscission, the natural shedding of plant parts like fruit, can occur due to factors such as the overproduction of abscisic acid, a plant hormone involved in the process.
327. Button in citrus fruit is:
a. Calyx at base
b. Calyx at apex
c. a & b
d. All of above
Answer: c. a & b
Explanation: In citrus fruit, the button refers to the presence of the calyx (remnant of the flower) at both the base and the apex of the fruit.
328. Pomology is the study of:
a. Fruit plants
b. Pome fruit
c. Medicinal plants
d. Deciduous plants
Answer: a. Fruit plants
Explanation: Pomology is the branch of horticulture that deals with the cultivation, production, and study of fruit plants.
329. Microsporogenesis is the formation of:
a. Male gamete
b. Female gamete
c. Female and male gamete
d. None of these
Answer: a. Male gamete
Explanation: Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of male gametes (pollen grains) in the anthers of flowering plants.
330. What is the term for the physiological aging activity in which plant tissues degenerate and ultimately die?
a. Senescence
b. Ripening
c. Climacteric
d. Degeneration
Answer: a. Senescence
Explanation: Senescence refers to the natural aging process in plants where tissues degenerate and ultimately die, leading to various changes such as yellowing of leaves and eventual shedding.
331. What is the term for plants’ response to the relative length of daylight or darkness?
a. Long day
b. Short day
c. Neutral
d. Photoperiodism
Answer: d. Photoperiodism
Explanation: Photoperiodism refers to the physiological response of plants to the relative lengths of light and dark periods, influencing processes like flowering and dormancy.
332. Which of the following describes the function of Abscisic acid (ABA), a natural plant hormone?
a. Promotes growth
b. Initiates ripening
c. Induces fruit maturity
d. Retards growth
Answer: d. Retards growth
Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is known as a growth inhibitor hormone as it generally slows down or inhibits various growth processes in plants, including seed germination and stomatal closure.
333. What is the term for the development of fruit without fertilization or seed?
a. Pollination
b. Polyembryony
c. Pseudogamy
d. Parthenocarpy
Answer: d. Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy refers to the development of fruit without fertilization or seed formation. It can occur naturally or be induced artificially.
334. In which regions do citrus orchards commonly have a 50% lower commercial yield?
a. Equal
b. 50% less in tropical than subtropical regions
c. 50% more in tropical than subtropical regions
d. All wrong
Answer: b. 50% less in tropical than subtropical regions
Explanation: Citrus orchards in subtropical regions typically have higher commercial yields compared to those in tropical regions due to differences in climate and growing conditions.
330. What is the term for the physiological aging activity in plants where tissues degenerate and ultimately die?
a. Senescence
b. Ripening
c. Climacteric
d. Degeneration
Explanation: Senescence refers to the natural aging process in plants, leading to tissue degeneration and death.
331. What is the term for plants’ response to the relative length of daylight or darkness?
a. Long day
b. Short day
c. Neutral
d. Photoperiodism
Explanation: Photoperiodism is the phenomenon where plants respond to changes in the length of daylight or darkness.
332. Abscisic acid (ABA) is a natural plant hormone known for which effect?
a. Promoting growth
b. Initiating ripening
c. Inducing fruit maturity
d. Retarding growth
Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is a plant hormone that primarily regulates responses to stress and growth inhibition.
333. What do we call the development of fruit without fertilization or seed?
a. Pollination
b. Polyembryony
c. Pseudogamy
d. Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without fertilization, resulting in seedless fruit.
334. In which regions do citrus orchards commonly have differing commercial yields?
a. Equal
b. 50% less in tropical than subtropical regions
c. 50% more in tropical than subtropical regions
d. All wrong
Explanation: Citrus orchards in tropical and subtropical regions commonly have different commercial yields, often with higher yields in tropical regions.
335. High nitrate supply helps to __________ maximum carbohydrates.
a. Utilize
b. Store
c. Synthesize
d. Increase
Explanation: High nitrate supply helps to synthesize maximum carbohydrates in plants.
336. What are nucellar seedlings also known as?
a. Monoembryony
b. Zygotic seedling
c. Polyembryony
d. None of them
Explanation: Nucellar seedlings are also called polyembryony.
337. What is the term for a sudden change in genetic constitution unrelated to sexual reproduction?
a. Hybridization
b. Bud variation
c. Mutation
d. None of them
Explanation: Mutation refers to a sudden change in the genetic constitution of an organism, not due to sexual reproduction.
338. Spongy tissue in mango is primarily due to:
a. Fungal disease
b. Viral disease
c. Bacterial disease
d. Physiological disorder
Explanation: Spongy tissue in mango is typically caused by a physiological disorder, not by diseases.
339. What is the soil moisture conservation technique under covered ground areas called?
a. Fertigation
b. Mulching
c. Microjet irrigation
d. Hydraulic
Explanation: Mulching is the soil moisture conservation technique used in covered ground areas.
340. What is the main portion of a banana plant above the ground called?
a. Stem
b. Rhizome
c. Pseudostem
d. Crown
Explanation: The main portion of a banana plant above the ground is called the pseudostem.
341. What effect does low temperature typically have on growth inhibitors in plants?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Store
d. Produce
Explanation: Low temperatures usually decrease the activity of growth inhibitors in plants, facilitating growth.
342. Which fruit variety is Gross Michel known for being?
a. Papaya
b. Grapes
c. Banana
d. Litchi
Explanation: Gross Michel is a renowned highyielding variety of bananas, prized for its productivity.
343. In which type of Grapefruit is the pulp pigmented but seeded?
a. Pigmented and seedless
b. White and seedless
c. Pigmented but seeded
d. White and seeded
Explanation: Shamber is a variety of Grapefruit characterized by its pigmented pulp containing seeds.
344. What fruit variety is The Foster?
a. Mandarin
b. sweet orange
c. Pummelos
d. Grapefruit
Explanation: The Foster is a variety of grape fruit known for its juicy, flavorful characteristics.
345. Which type of fruit is typically nonclimacteric?
a. Banana
b. Mango
c. Apple
d. Citrus
Explanation: Citrus fruits, such as oranges and lemons, are typically nonclimacteric, meaning they do not exhibit a significant increase in respiration and ethylene production during ripening.
346. What is the cause of Bunchy top disease in bananas?
a. Virus
b. Insects
c. Improper storage
d. Fungus
Explanation: Bunchy top disease in bananas is caused by a viral infection.
347. When is severe pruning in grapes recommended?
a. Every year
b. After two years
c. After three years
d. None of them
Explanation: Severe pruning in grapes is typically recommended after every two years to rejuvenate the vine and maintain productivity.
348. Which fruit is often referred to as the king of temperate fruits?
a. Mango
b. Citrus
c. Banana
d. Apple
Explanation: Apple is often regarded as the king of temperate fruits due to its widespread cultivation and economic significance in temperate regions.
349. What is the term for plant reproduction through seeds?
a. Asexual propagation
b. Vegetative propagation
c. Sexual propagation
d. Tissue culture
Explanation: Reproduction through seeds is termed sexual propagation.
350. What are plants called that shed their leaves during autumn?
a. Evergreen
b. Deciduous
c. Hardy plants
d. None of them
Explanation: Plants that shed their leaves during autumn are known as deciduous.
351. What is a ripened ovary called?
a. Flower
b. Seed
c. Fruit
d. Embryo
Explanation: A ripened ovary is called a fruit, containing mature seeds within it.
352. What term describes pollination between two flowers located on the same plant?
a. Autogamy
b. Allogamy
c. Crosspollinated
d. None of these
Explanation: Autogamy refers to the process of selfpollination within the same flower, plant, or individual.
353. Which plant serves as a good example of a dioecious reproductive system?
a. Apricot
b. Pear
c. Plum
d. Papaya
Explanation: Dioecious plants have distinct male and female individuals, and a classic example is papaya, where individual trees are either male or female.
354. What fruit variety is “Sensation”?
a. Sweet orange
b. Grapefruit
c. Mandarin
d. Mango
Explanation: Sensation is a variety of mango.
355. When can a tomato nursery established in September typically be transplanted into the field?
a. October
b. November
c. November/December
d. January/February
Explanation: A tomato nursery established in September can typically be transplanted into the field in November.
356. Which variety originated from a cross of King X Willow leaf?
a. Clementine
b. Fairchild
c. Feutrell’s Early
d. Kinnow
Explanation: The variety originated from a cross of King X Willow leaf is Kinnow.
357. What causes misshapen and angularity in cucumber fruit under tunnel conditions?
a. Poor pollination
b. Poor fertilization
c. Proper pollination
d. None
Explanation: Misshapen and angularity in cucumber fruit under tunnel conditions are caused by poor pollination.
358. In citrus, where are 8090% of the active roots typically located in the soil?
a. 25 cm
b. 50 cm
c. 75 cm
d. 100 cm
Explanation: In citrus, 8090% of the active roots are typically located in the soil to a depth of 25 cm.
359. What term describes a fleshy fruit with thin skin that is not formed from the ovary but from another part of the plant?
a. Berry
b. Drupe
c. Stone fruit
d. Pome
Explanation: Such fruits are known as pomes.
360. What are fruits called that do not naturally open to shed seeds?
a. Dehiscent fruit
b. Fleshy fruit
c. Dry fruit
d. Indehiscent fruit
Explanation: Fruits that do not naturally open to shed seeds are called indehiscent fruit.
361. Which is an example of an aboveground modified stem?
a. Stolons
b. Corms
c. Tubers
d. Rhizomes
Explanation: Stolons are aboveground modified stems.
362. What are the edges of a leaf called?
a. Margin
b. Midrib
c. Veins
d. Petiole
Explanation: The edges of a leaf are called the margin.
363. What is the chromosome number (2n) in citrus?
a. 18
b. 22
c. 33
d. 20
Explanation: The correct answer is d. 20. Citrus plants typically have a chromosome number of 2n = 18.
364. What is the scientific name of sweet orange?
a. C. citrii
b. C. chinensis
c. C. sinensis
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. C. sinensis. “Citrus sinensis” is the scientific name for sweet orange.
365. Sweet orange thrives best in which type of conditions?
a. Dry and semiarid conditions
b. Dry and subhumid conditions
c. Wet and subhumid conditions
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Dry and subhumid conditions. Sweet orange trees prefer dry to subhumid climates for optimal growth.
366. What does zinc deficiency in sweet orange typically cause?
a. Chlorosis in fruit
b. Chlorosis in leaves
c. Streaks on leaves
d. Increased sweetness of fruit
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Chlorosis in leaves. Zinc deficiency in sweet orange trees often manifests as chlorosis or yellowing of the leaves.
367. The antagonistic effect of Fe on Zn availability in sweet orange leads to:
a. Leaf drop
b. Fruit drop
c. Reduced fruit weight
d. Zn deficiency
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Reduced fruit weight. When iron (Fe) availability affects zinc (Zn) absorption negatively, it can result in reduced fruit weight due to inadequate nutrient uptake.
368. During which period does blooming typically occur in mango?
a. February to MidApril
b. January to the first week of February
c. SeptemberOctober
d. May – June
Explanation: The correct answer is a. February to MidApril. Mango trees typically bloom during this period.
369. What is the term for the whole inflorescence in mango?
a. Spike
b. Panicle
c. Spath
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Panicle. In mango, the entire inflorescence structure is called a panicle.
370. What is the optimal temperature range for cucumber seed germination?
a. 2025°C
b. 2530°C
c. 1525°C
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 1525°C. Cucumber seeds germinate best within this temperature range.
371. During which flush does mango typically bear the maximum number of flowers?
a. August flush
b. June flush
c. May flush
d. April flush
Explanation: The correct answer is b. June flush. This is when mango trees usually produce the most flowers.
372. What type of fruit is a mango?
a. False fruit
b. Pome fruit
c. Drupe fruit
d. Stone fruit
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Drupe fruit. Mango is classified as a drupe fruit, characterized by a fleshy outer part surrounding a hard inner shell containing a seed.
373. What is another term for inarching?
a. Cutting
b. Budding
c. Approach grafting
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Approach grafting. Inarching is a grafting technique where a shoot or branch of a desired plant is grafted into a slit made in the stem of a rooted stock plant. It is also known as approach grafting.
374. Anthracnose of mango is:
a. Fungal disease
b. Viral disease
c. Physiological disorder
d. None of these
Explanation: Anthracnose of mango is a fungal disease caused by the fungus Colletotrichum gloeosporioides.
375. One year old branch of a plant is:
a. Sprigs
b. Mature branch
c. Twigs
d. None of these
Explanation: A oneyearold branch of a plant is commonly referred to as twigs.
376. Guava is grown on a large scale in:
a. Quetta
b. Multan area
c. Sheikhupura area
d. Bahawalpur area
Explanation: Guava is grown on a large scale in the Sheikhupura area of India.
377. All commercial date palm orchards in India are pollinated by:
a. Insects
b. Winds
c. Natural
d. Manual
Explanation: All commercial date palm orchards in India are typically manually pollinated.
378. Umran No. 9 and 13 are varieties of:
a. Loquat
b. Grapes
c. Banana
d. Ber
Explanation: Umran No. 9 and 13 are varieties of ber.
379. Flower bearing in ber occurs during:
a. Spring
b. Winter
c. Summer
d. Autumn
Explanation: Flower bearing in ber typically occurs during the summer season.
380. East Malling is a rootstock for:
a. Apple
b. Loquat
c. Musambi
d. Pineapple
Explanation: East Malling is a rootstock commonly used for apple trees.
381. Low chilling varieties of apple include:
a. Tropical Beauty
b. Enna
c. None of these
d. All of these
Explanation: Low chilling varieties of apple include Tropical Beauty and Enna.
382. Stooling is also called as:
a. Sexual propagation
b. Cutting
c. Gooti layering
d. Mound layering
Explanation: Stooling is also known as mound layering.
383. Good soil management ensures:
a. Good supply of organic matter
b. Prevention of soil erosion
c. Preservation of moisture
d. All of the above
Explanation: Good soil management ensures all of the abovea good supply of organic matter, prevention of soil erosion, and preservation of moisture.
384. Apple requires relatively:
a. High K and low P
b. High P and low K
c. Equal K and P
d. No K and P
Explanation: Apple requires relatively high potassium (K) and low phosphorus (P) levels.
385. Fullgrown apple tree requires:
a. No FYM
b. Very low FYM
c. 4050 Kg FYM
d. 80100Kg FYM
Explanation: A fullgrown apple tree typically requires 80100 Kg FYM (Farm Yard Manure) for optimal growth and fruit production.
386. Irrigation during blooming in apple:
a. Helps to increase the fruit set
b. Is harmful to fruit set
c. Shows no response
d. Reduces the fruit development
Explanation: Irrigation during blooming in apple helps to increase the fruit set by ensuring adequate water availability for pollination and fertilization.
387. Crosspollinated apples generally produce:
a. Worse results than selfpollinated
b. Better results than selfpollinated
c. Same results as selfpollinated
d. None of these
Explanation: Crosspollinated apples generally produce better results than selfpollinated, as crosspollination promotes genetic diversity and often leads to improved fruit quality and yield.
388. In sweet orange, preharvest fruit drop is:
a. Seldom experienced
b. Never experienced
c. Commonly experienced
d. A problem of the area
Explanation: Preharvest fruit drop in sweet orange is commonly experienced, especially under certain environmental conditions or due to certain cultural practices.
389. The sweet orange is a:
a. Looseskinned
b. Tightskinned
c. Both of them
d. None of these
Explanation: The sweet orange is a looseskinned citrus fruit variety.
390. Sweet orange belongs to the family:
a. Malvaceae
b. Rutaceae
c. Both of them
d. None of these
Explanation: Sweet orange belongs to the Rutaceae family.
391. Citrus reticulat Blanco is the botanical name for:
a. Sour lime
b. Mandarin
c. Both of a and b
d. None of these
Explanation: Citrus reticulat Blanco is the botanical name for mandarin.
392. Tap roots of plants are also called as:
a. Secondary roots
b. Adventitious roots
c. Primary roots
d. Tertiary roots
Explanation: Tap roots of plants are also called primary roots.
393. The parts of the stem from which a leaf arises is called:
a. Node
b. Internodes
c. Apex
d. Bud
Explanation: The parts of the stem from which a leaf arises are called nodes.
394. The plants which live for only a single season are called:
a. Herbs
b. Perennials
c. Biennials
d. Annuals
Explanation: Plants that live for only a single season are called annuals.
395. Plants, soft and green, and can be easily bent are known as:
a. Herbaceous
b. Woody
c. Shrubs
d. None of these
Explanation: Plants that are soft and green, and can be easily bent are known as herbaceous.
396. The bud which develops into the axils of a leaf is:
a. Axillary buds
b. Terminal buds
c. Adventitious buds
d. Naked buds
Explanation: The bud which develops into the axils of a leaf is known as axillary buds.
397. In some plants, the buds contain both leaves and flowers and are known as:
a. Leaf buds
b. Flower buds
c. Scaly buds
d. Mixed buds
Explanation: In some plants, the buds containing both leaves and flowers are known as mixed buds.
398. A slender trailing stem taking roots at the node is:
a. Runner
b. Rhizome
c. Tuber
d. Bulbs
Explanation: A slender trailing stem taking roots at the node is called a runner.
399. The stamens are the male organs of the flower, which are also called:
a. Pistil
b. Gynoecium
c. Androecium
d. Carpel
Explanation: The stamens, which are the male organs of the flower, are also called the androecium.
400. Special leaf which bears a flower or cluster of flowers in its axils is called:
a. Bracts
b. Compound leaf
c. Simple leaf
d. None of these
Explanation: A special leaf which bears a flower or cluster of flowers in its axils is called bracts.
401. The terminal part of the pedicel bearing the sepals, petals, stamens, and carpals is called:
a. Pedicel
b. Inflorescence
c. Thalamus
d. None of these
Explanation: The terminal part of the pedicel bearing the sepals, petals, stamens, and carpals is called the thalamus.
402. Peduncle is the main axis of the:
a. Leaf
b. Flower
c. Inflorescence
d. Bud
Explanation: Peduncle is the main axis of the inflorescence.
403. An inflorescence in which the pedicels of the flowers arise from the same points is called:
a. Umbel
b. Spike
c. Catkin
d. Uninate
Explanation: An inflorescence in which the pedicels of the flowers arise from the same points is called an umbel.
404. A group of flowers on an axis is called:
a. Solitary axillary flower
b. Solitary terminal flower
c. Inflorescence
d. Modified flower
Explanation: A group of flowers on an axis is called an inflorescence.
405. The nutritive tissue around the embryo in a seed is:
a. Endosmosis
b. Endodermis
c. Endosperm
d. Embryosac
Explanation: The nutritive tissue around the embryo in a seed is called the endosperm.
406. Bracts situated outside the calyx in certain flowers are called:
a. Epicalyx
b. Epibasal
c. Epicarp
d. Epidermis
Explanation: Bracts situated outside the calyx in certain flowers are called epicalyx.
407. What is the term for the germination of a seed in which cotyledons come above ground?
a. Epigeal
b. Hypogeal
c. Epigynous
d. Epipetalous
Explanation: Epigeal germination refers to the type of seed germination in which the cotyledons emerge above the ground after germination. This process is common in many plants such as beans and sunflowers.
Horticulture mcq Part 3rd
408. What is the term for a sexual cell in plants?
a. Gamete
b. Gametophyte
c. Gamopetalous
d. Gamosepalous
Explanation: A gamete is a sexual cell in plants responsible for fertilization. In flowering plants, gametes are produced within the male and female reproductive organs (stamens and carpels, respectively).
409. What is a flower called when it has all the usual parts sepals, petals, stamens, and carpel?
a. Hermaphrodite
b. Complete
c. Pistilate
d. Incomplete
Explanation: A flower that possesses all the essential floral parts sepals, petals, stamens, and carpelsis termed as complete.
410. What is the term for the situation in which a plant grows wild?
a. Habitat
b. Halophytes
c. Helicoids
d. Haustorium’s
Explanation: Habitat refers to the natural environment where a plant grows wild. It encompasses various factors such as climate, soil type, and biotic interactions.
411. What are proteins, the most complex organic compounds, composed of?
a. Carbon
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen and nitrogen
d. All of these
Explanation: Proteins are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, along with varying amounts of other elements such as sulfur and phosphorus. They are essential macromolecules for various biological processes in living organisms.
412. Which vitamin is sourced from pineapple?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B
d. All of these
Explanation: Pineapple is a rich source of vitamin C, which is essential for immune function, skin health, and collagen production. It also contains other vitamins and minerals but is particularly renowned for its high vitamin C content.
413. What method is still commonly used for commercial propagation of papaya?
a. Cutting
b. Suckers
c. Seeds
d. Grafting
Explanation: Papaya is often commercially propagated from seeds, as it allows for the production of genetically diverse plants. However, vegetative methods such as cutting and grafting are also used for specific purposes such as maintaining desirable traits or rapid multiplication.
414. What percentage of male plants is required for good pollination in a papaya orchard?
a. 510%
b. 4045%
c. 5055%
d. 7075%
Explanation: For effective pollination in a papaya orchard, it is recommended to have around 5055% of male plants to ensure an adequate supply of pollen for fertilizing the female flowers.
415. Which family does Silver Oak belong to?
a. Rosaceae
b. Palmae
c. Oleaceae
d. Proteaceae
Explanation: Silver Oak belongs to the family Proteaceae. This family includes a diverse range of flowering plants, many of which are native to Australia and South Africa.
416. How are tomatoes pollinated in tunnel production?
a. Honey bees
b. Bumble bees
c. House flies
d. Vibration
Explanation: In tunnel production, tomatoes are often pollinated using vibration techniques, such as mechanical or manual shaking of the plants. This helps to dislodge pollen from the flowers and facilitate pollination in the absence of natural pollinators like bees.
417. Which rootstock is suitable for apple cultivation in heavy soils?
a. M7
b. M9
c. M11
d. Crab apple
Explanation: In heavy soils, M7 rootstock is preferred for apple cultivation as it imparts vigor and anchorage to the tree while also providing some degree of disease resistance. M9 rootstock, on the other hand, is more suitable for dwarfing and is often used in lighter soils or high density orchards.
418: Rate of ethylene production in citrus is comparatively _______ than in mango.
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Equal
d. Unknown
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Lower. Citrus fruits generally produce lower levels of ethylene compared to mangoes. Ethylene is a plant hormone involved in the ripening process, and its production varies among different fruits.
419: Lemons are usually degreened at:
a. 6°C
b. 16°C
c. 26°C
d. 30°C
Explanation: Lemons are typically degreened at a temperature of d. 30°C. Degreening is a process used to remove the green coloration from citrus fruits to improve their appearance for the market.
420: Postharvest fungicidal treatment of mango fruit is done with:
a. Thiobendazole (TBZ)
b. Ethylene Dibromide (EDB)
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Thiobendazole (TBZ). Thiobendazole is commonly used as a postharvest fungicide to control fungal diseases in mango fruits.
421: __________ variety of apple is reported to perform well at lower altitudes.
a. Enna
b. Amri
c. Diana
d. Golden Delicious
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Golden Delicious. Golden Delicious variety of apple is known to perform well at lower altitudes and in warmer climates.
422: Dhaki variety of date palm was originated in:
a. Sindh
b. NWFP
c. Balochistan
d. Punjab
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Sindh. The Dhaki variety of date palm originated in the Sindh province of India.
423: Which of the following vegetable crops is a relative of cotton:
a. Onion
b. Okra
c. Mustard
d. Brinjal
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Okra. Okra (Abelmoschus esculentus) is a relative of cotton (Gossypium spp.). Both belong to the same family, Malvaceae.
424: In pineapple sweet orange, fruit drop in the month of June is up to:
a. 66%
b. 76%
c. 86%
d. 96%
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 86%. In pineapple sweet orange, fruit drop in the month of June can be up to 86%, which can vary depending on various factors such as weather conditions and agricultural practices.
425: Hodgson divided the genus citrus into:
a. 16 species
b. 26 species
c. 36 species
d. More than 36 species
Explanation: The correct answer is d. More than 36 species. Hodgson classified the genus Citrus into numerous species, with the total number exceeding 36.
426: In India, the yield of potato ranges between:
a. 1015 tons
b. 1520 tons
c. 2025 tons
d. 2530 tons
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 2025 tons. In India, the yield of potatoes typically ranges between 2025 tons per hectare, depending on various factors such as soil quality, climate, and farming practices.
427: Motia (ornamental) belongs to the family:
a. Oleacecae
b. Moraceae
c. Rosaceae
d. Nyctaginaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Oleacecae. Motia, which is an ornamental plant, belongs to the family Oleaceae.
428: Rubber plant (ornamental) belongs to the family:
a. Oleacecae
b. Moraceae
c. Rosaceae
d. Nyctaginaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Moraceae. The rubber plant, which is commonly grown as an ornamental houseplant, belongs to the family Moraceae.
429: Bougainvillea (ornamental) belongs to family:
a. Oleacecae
b. Moraceae
c. Rosaceae
d. Nyctaginaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Nyctaginaceae. Bougainvillea, a popular ornamental plant known for its vibrant colored bracts, belongs to the family Nyctaginaceae.
430: Germination percentage in sour orange rootstock is:
a. 50 60%
b. 61 70%
c. 71 80%
d. 81 90%
Explanation: The correct answer is b. 6170%. Sour orange rootstock typically exhibits a germination percentage ranging from 61% to 70%.
431: In Kinnow mandarin, fruit drop in the month of June is up to:
a. 70%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 85%
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 80%. In Kinnow mandarin, fruit drop in the month of June can be up to 80%, influenced by various factors including weather conditions and agricultural practices.
432: Following species of citrus can be propagated through cutting.
a. Sweet orange
b. Sweet lime
c. Kaghzi lime
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. None of the above. Citrus species are typically propagated through budding, grafting, or other methods, but not commonly through cuttings.
433: Following species of citrus can be propagated through layering.
a. Sweet orange
b. Sweet lime
c. Kaghzi lime
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. None of the above. Citrus species are not commonly propagated through layering.
434: In Punjab, most of the fresh vegetable production is carried out:
a. Near cities
b. Near rivers
c. Near canals
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Near cities. In Punjab, most of the fresh vegetable production is carried out near urban centers due to market demand and accessibility.
435: Which of the following crops has high sulfur content:
a. Garlic
b. Onion
c. Radish
d. None
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Garlic. Garlic has a relatively high sulfur content, which contributes to its pungent aroma and flavor.
436: During propagation through cuttings, which hormone(s) is/are used for root promotion?
a. ABA
b. Seradix
c. NAA
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Seradix. Seradix is a rooting hormone commonly used to promote root formation during propagation through cuttings.
437: Araucaria was originated from:
a. South Pacific
b. South Asia
c. Far East
d. Middle East
Explanation: The correct answer is a. South Pacific. Araucaria, commonly known as the Norfolk Island Pine or Cook Pine, originated from the South Pacific region.
438: Rubber plant can be propagated through:
a. Aerial layering
b. Cutting
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. All of the above. Rubber plants can be propagated through methods such as aerial layering and cuttings.
439: Silver Oak produces seeds after the age of:
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 10 years. Silver Oak trees typically start producing seeds after they reach the age of around 10 years.
440: Which of the following plants are used for the extraction of scent?
a. Rose
b. Murva
c. Citrus
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Rose, Murva, and Citrus are all plants commonly used for the extraction of scents or essential oils.
441: The first ever auxin discovered was:
a. IBA
b. IPA
c. IAA
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. IAA. Indole3acetic acid (IAA) was the first auxin to be discovered.
442: Mowing of grasses in winter is recommended after:
a. 2030 days
b. 3040 days
c. 4050 days
d. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’. Mowing of grasses in winter is typically recommended after 3040 days or 4050 days, depending on the growth rate and weather conditions.
443: Major types of green house are
a. Even span
b. Lean to
c. Odd span
d. a & b
Explanation: The correct answer is d. a & b. The major types of greenhouses include even span and leanto structures.
444: At the time of transplanting, the weight of date palm sucker should be:
a. 510 kg
b. 1020 kg
c. 2030 kg
d. Less than 5 kg
Explanation: The correct answer is b. 1020 kg. At the time of transplanting, the weight of a date palm sucker should typically be between 1020 kg for optimal growth and establishment.
445: Following plant(s) is/are propagated through seed.
a. Murva
b. Bottle palm
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Both Murva and Bottle palm can be propagated through seeds.
446: Citrus seeds can be stored with Charcoal at the following temperature in dry conditions.
a. 03°C
b. 310°C
c. 1015°C
d. Above 15°C
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 1015°C. Citrus seeds can be stored with charcoal at temperatures ranging from 1015°C in dry conditions to maintain their viability.
447: Seed germination percentage of rough lemon is:
a. 5060%
b. 6070%
c. 7080%
d. 8090%
Explanation: The correct answer is b. 6070%. Rough lemon typically exhibits a seed germination percentage ranging from 60% to 70%.
448: The most serious insect/pest(s) of apple is/are:
a. Codling moth
b. Fruit fly
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. All of the above. Both codling moth and fruit fly are serious pests that can affect apple orchards.
449: Postharvest fumigation of citrus used to be done with:
a. Thiobendazole (TBZ)
b. Ethylene Dibromide (EDB)
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Both of the above. Postharvest fumigation of citrus was commonly done using Thiobendazole (TBZ) and Ethylene Dibromide (EDB).
450: Soil compaction __________ yield of potato.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not affect
d. Unknown
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Decreases. Soil compaction typically decreases the yield of potato by restricting root growth and nutrient uptake.
451: Cost benefit ratio in potato production should range:
a. 1:5
b. 1:10
c. 10:1
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’. The cost benefit ratio in potato production should ideally range between 1:5 and 1:10 for profitability.
452: “Thalsa” is a variety of potato very suitable for the region of:
a. Peshawar
b. Tandojam
c. Mir Pur Khas
d. Sahiwal
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Mir Pur Khas. “Thalsa” is a variety of potato that is very suitable for the region of Mir Pur Khas.
453: Yield of carrot is maximum at pH:
a. 6.5
b. 7.5
c. 8.5
d. Below 6.5
Explanation: The correct answer is a. 6.5. The yield of carrot is maximum at a pH of around 6.5.
454: Temperate varieties of carrot have ________ life cycle.
a. Annual
b. Biennial
c. Perennial
d. Unknown
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Biennial. Temperate varieties of carrot typically have a biennial life cycle.
455: Which of the following vegetable is also called as ‘poor man’s food’?
a. Carrot
b. Onion
c. Radish
d. Potato
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Potato. Potato is often referred to as the ‘poor man’s food’ due to its widespread availability and affordability.
456: Which of the following factor(s) is/are more suitable for good onion production?
a. High temperature
b. Long photoperiod
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Both high temperature and long photoperiods are conducive to good onion production.
457: Green potato tuber is inedible due to:
a. Carcinogenic
b. Hardness
c. Hollowness
d. None of above
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Carcinogenic. Green potato tubers contain solanine, which can be toxic and carcinogenic if consumed in large quantities.
458: CRD is a statistical approach for:
a. Field experiment
b. Laboratory experiment
c. Both a & b
d. None
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Both a & b. CRD (Completely Randomized Design) is a statistical approach used for both field and laboratory experiments.
459: Soft nose is a disorder of:
a. Date fruit
b. Citrus fruit
c. Mango fruit
d. Apple fruit
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Mango fruit. Soft nose is a disorder that affects mango fruit, causing softening and decay at the blossom end.
460: Guava seed before germination requires:
a. Fungicide treatment
b. Chemical treatment
c. Commercial grade H2SO4 treatment
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Guava seeds before germination may require treatments such as fungicide treatment, chemical treatment, or treatment with commercial grade H2SO4 to improve germination rates.
461: Fruit splitting in pomegranate and litchi is mainly due to:
a. Water pressure
b. Dryness of air
c. Nutritional defects
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Fruit splitting in pomegranate and litchi can be attributed to factors such as water pressure, dryness of air, and nutritional defects.
462: Production of vegetable out of their normal season of outdoor production is known as:
a. Vegetable forcing
b. Out of season
c. Crop production
d. Tissue culture
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Vegetable forcing. Vegetable forcing refers to the practice of inducing vegetable crops to grow out of their normal season of outdoor production, often through controlled environments such as greenhouses.
463: Yellow wasp is a major pest of:
a. Grapefruit
b. Peach fruit
c. Citrus fruit
d. Mango fruit
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Grapefruit. Yellow wasp is a major pest of grapefruit, known for causing damage to the fruit.
464: The only pest of date fruit at the green hard stage is:
a. Nightingale
b. Parrot
c. Sparrow
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Parrot. Parrots are known to be a significant pest of date fruit, especially during the green hard stage.
465: Study which deals with the microscopic structure of tissue is called:
a. Anatomy
b. Histology
c. Taxonomy
d. Ecology
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Histology. Histology is the study of the microscopic structure of tissues.
466: Study of plant species in relation to its environmental history is called:
a. Phylogeny
b. Histology
c. Ontogeny
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is d. None of these. The study of plant species in relation to its environmental history is known as paleobotany or paleoecology.
467: Elevation of temperate regions from sea level ranges:
a. 10002000 m
b. 25003000 m
c. 35004000 m
d. b & c
Explanation: The correct answer is d. b & c. The elevation of temperate regions from sea level typically ranges from 25003000 m to 35004000 m.
468: Banana belongs to the type of fruit, in which the edible portion is:
a. Mesocarp
b. Syconus
c. Berry
d. Drupe
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Berry. Banana is a type of fruit where the edible portion is the fleshy part of the berry.
469: Almond is a drupe fruit, in which the edible portion is:
a. Pericarp
b. Thalamus
c. Seed
d. Mesocarp
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Seed. In almonds, the edible portion is the seed contained within the hard shell or endocarp.
470: Frond length of cultivated date ranges:
a. 35 m
b. 34 m
c. 23 m
d. 12 m
Explanation: The correct answer is b. 34 m. The frond length of cultivated date palms typically ranges from 3 to 4 meters.
471: The most important characteristics of the tropical region are:
a. Snowfall
b. Frost
c. Winds
d. High temperature
Explanation: The correct answer is d. High temperature. The most important characteristic of the tropical region is its high temperature, along with high humidity and abundant rainfall.
472: Addition of __________ hastens the time of fruit bud differentiation in fruit plants:
a. Nitrites
b. Nitrides
c. Nitrates
d. All of these
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Nitrates. The addition of nitrates hastens the time of fruit bud differentiation in fruit plants, promoting fruit development and maturation.
473 More hormones are accumulated in plants due to the accumulation of _______:
a. Nitrate
b. Starch
c. Protein
d. Vitamins
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Starch. The accumulation of starch in plants can lead to increased levels of hormones, as starch serves as a storage form of energy and can influence hormonal regulation.
474 Reproductive phase of fruit plants is improved by the accumulation of _____:
a. Nitrogen
b. Starch
c. Proteins
d. Cellulose
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Starch. The reproductive phase of fruit plants is improved by the accumulation of starch, as it provides the necessary energy for flowering and fruit production.
475 Pruning in old fruit trees increases fruit bud formation by increasing ______:
a. Carbohydrates
b. New vegetative growth
c. Hormonal contents
d. Cell sap
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Carbohydrates. Pruning in old fruit trees increases fruit bud formation by redistributing carbohydrates from the pruned branches to the remaining parts of the tree, stimulating the development of fruit buds.
476 At a temperature slightly above optimum, carbohydrates are ________:
a. Produced
b. Stored
c. Utilized
d. Increased
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Utilized. At a temperature slightly above optimum, carbohydrates are utilized more rapidly by the plant for various metabolic processes, such as growth and respiration.
477 Apical bud becomes ________ in mango at fruit bud differentiation :
a. Flattened
b. Rounded
c. Dome shaped
d. Elongated
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Dome shaped. During fruit bud differentiation in mango, the apical bud becomes dome shaped as it prepares for the development of floral structures.
478 The phase of fruit bud formation continues until _________:
a. Anthesis
b. Petal formation
c. Pollination
d. Differentiation
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Differentiation. The phase of fruit bud formation continues until differentiation, during which the buds develop into floral structures capable of reproduction.
479 The development of flower bud in tuberose is :
a. Basipetal
b. Exipetal
c. Endopetal
d. Acropetal
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Basipetal. In tuberose, the development of flower buds occurs in a basipetal direction, meaning that the lower or older flowers develop first.
480 Rate of bud development is ___________ up to the winter season :
a. Slow
b. Rapid
c. Medium
d. Constant
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Slow. The rate of bud development slows down as the winter season approaches, as environmental conditions become less conducive to growth.
481 Dormancy is a function of the interaction of growth promoters like GA and growth inhibitor like _________:
a. ABA
b. Cycocell
c. Alar
d. Paclobutrazole
Explanation: The correct answer is a. ABA (Abscisic Acid). Dormancy is regulated by the interaction of growth promoters like Gibberellins (GA) and growth inhibitors like Abscisic Acid (ABA), which control the onset and release of dormancy in plants.
482 Dormancy of seed is a biological mechanism that provides protection against ______:
a. Seed spoilage
b. Embryo abortion
c. Premature germination
d. Dehydration
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Premature germination. Dormancy of seed is a biological mechanism that provides protection against premature germination, ensuring that germination occurs under favorable conditions for seedling establishment.
483 The major metabolic process which takes place in the harvested produce is _______:
a. Ripening
b. Respiration
c. Softening
d. Senescence
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Respiration. Respiration is the major metabolic process that takes place in harvested produce, leading to the consumption of stored energy reserves and the production of heat, carbon dioxide, and water.
484 At fruit bud differentiation in mango, C/N ratio is _______:
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. Very High
Explanation: The correct answer is c. High. At fruit bud differentiation in mango, the C/N (Carbon to Nitrogen) ratio is high. This indicates that there is a relatively higher concentration of carbon compared to nitrogen, which is characteristic of the stage of floral differentiation.
485 Annual bearing apples differentiate a much greater proportion of their flowers on _______:
a. Spurs
b. Shoots
c. Leaf axils
d. Main stem
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Spurs. Annual bearing apples differentiate a much greater proportion of their flowers on spurs. Spurs are short, stubby lateral branches on apple trees where floral buds are formed, and they play a significant role in flower and fruit production.
486 Self fertility refers to the ability of a variety to produce fruits with viable ___:
a. Pollens
b. Seeds
c. Ovules
d. Ovaries
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Pollens. Self fertility refers to the ability of a variety to produce fruits with viable pollens, which are capable of fertilizing the ovules within the same flower or another flower on the same plant.
487 Flowers having stigma below the highest anthers are called _______:
a. Apistigmatic
b. Hypostigmatic
c. Peristigmatic
d. Exostigmatic
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Hypostigmatic. Flowers having stigma below the highest anthers are called hypostigmatic. This floral arrangement facilitates crosspollination, as the stigma receives pollen before the anthers shed their pollen.
488 Failure of viable pollen to grow down the style of the flower of the same variety is called ___________:
a. Self sterility
b. Self incompatibility
c. Self unfruitfulness
d. Sterility
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Self incompatibility. Failure of viable pollen to grow down the style of the flower of the same variety is called self incompatibility. This prevents self fertilization and promotes crosspollination in plants.
489 Piping is carried out in:
a. Chrysanthemum
b. Rose
c. Gladiolus
d. Carnation
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Rose. Piping is a propagation technique commonly carried out in roses. It involves inserting a section of stem or shoot into a hole made in the ground, where it roots and grows into a new plant.
490 Chlorophyll formation takes place within a light wavelength of _________:
a. 150200
b. 200300
c. 300675
d. 700900
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 300675 nm. Chlorophyll formation takes place within a light wavelength range of 300675 nanometers. This range corresponds to the visible light spectrum, where photosynthesis primarily occurs.
491 Root formation is promoted in softwood cuttings under light intensity of __________ footcandles:
a. 100150
b. 150200
c. 200250
d. 250350
Explanation: The correct answer is b. 150200 footcandles. Root formation is promoted in softwood cuttings under a light intensity of 150200 footcandles. This optimal light condition stimulates the development of roots while minimizing stress on the cutting.
492 Fruiting body of roses is called:
a. Button
b. Hips
c. Slip
d. None of above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Hips. The fruiting body of roses is called hips. Hips develop from the base of the flower after pollination and contain seeds. They are often used in herbal teas and decorative arrangements.
493 Apple and pear form their flower buds in ___________:
a. May June
b. July August
c. September October
d. November December
Explanation: The correct answer is c. September October.
Apple and pear trees form their flower buds in September October, during the autumn season. These buds develop over the winter and bloom in the spring.
494 Volatile oils are those oils which can evaporate at:
a. 25°C
b. 40°C
c. 50°C
d. 65°C
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 50°C. Volatile oils are those oils that can evaporate at relatively low temperatures. They typically evaporate at around 50°C, releasing their aromatic compounds into the air.
495 The renewal of NO3 involves release of ___________ from organic fraction of the soil and its rapid nitrification:
a. NO2
b. NH4
c. N
d. NO
Explanation: The correct answer is b. NH4. The renewal of NO3 (nitrate) involves the release of NH4 (ammonium) from the organic fraction of the soil and its rapid nitrification. This process is part of the nitrogen cycle in soil.
496 Most of Nitrogen is used in the decomposition of __________ and thus plant shows deficiency symptoms:
a. Amino acids
b. Cellulose
c. Carbon compounds
d. Organic matter
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Organic matter. Most of the nitrogen in soil is used in the decomposition of organic matter, and when this process is insufficient, plants may show deficiency symptoms due to inadequate nitrogen availability.
497 Toxicity of Mg can be modified by adding ________:
a. N
b. PO4
c. Ca
d. K2O
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Ca. The toxicity of Mg (magnesium) can be modified by adding calcium (Ca), which can help to alleviate the adverse effects of excessive magnesium in the soil.
498 Injurious effects of sulphates can be replaced with the addition of ________:
a. Nitrates
b. Phosphates
c. Ammonia
d. Ca & Mg
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Ca & Mg. The injurious effects of sulfates can be mitigated by the addition of calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg). These elements can help to balance the soil and counteract the negative effects of excessive sulfates.
499 Internal browning in apples takes place due to _______:
a. Fungus
b. High temperature
c. Hailstorm
d. Bacteria
Explanation: The correct answer is b. High temperature. Internal browning in apples often occurs due to exposure to high temperatures, especially during storage or transport. It is a physiological disorder rather than a result of fungal or bacterial infection.
500 Onion seeds can germinate at a temperature of:
a. 01°C
b. 15°C
c. 511°C
d. 1520°C
Explanation: The correct answer is c. 511°C. Onion seeds can germinate at a relatively low temperature range of 511°C. This characteristic allows onions to be planted early in the season in regions with cooler climates.
506. Removal of young flower buds to allow maximum development of the remainder is termed as:
a. Die back
b. Disbudding
c. Dead heading
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Disbudding. Disbudding involves the removal of young flower buds from plants to allow the remaining buds to develop to their maximum potential, resulting in larger or more abundant blooms.
507. Small, hairlike outgrowth at the base of leaf stalk is termed as:
a. Bud
b. Bract
c. Stipule
d. Ligule
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Stipule. Stipules are small, often leaflike appendages found at the base of the leaf stalk (petiole) in some plants. They can vary in shape and size and may or may not be present in all species.
508. Pruning in narrow leaved evergreens should be done during:
a. Early fall
b. Winter
c. Summer
d. Early spring
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Winter. Pruning of narrow leaved evergreens is typically done during the winter when the plants are dormant. This helps to avoid stimulating new growth that could be damaged by frost or cold temperatures.
509. Which of the following plants require severe pruning?
a. Lagerstroemia purpurea
b. Nerium oleander
c. Jasminum sambac
d. Thuja orientalis
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Nerium oleander. Nerium oleander, commonly known as oleander, requires severe pruning to maintain its shape and size. It tolerates heavy pruning and can even be cut back to the ground if necessary.
510. Which of the following climbers is important for its hardiness and flowers throughout the year?
a. Vitis vinifera
b. Bougainvillea glabra
c. Tecoma grandiflora
d. Quisqualis indica
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Bougainvillea glabra. Bougainvillea glabra is known for its hardiness and ability to flower throughout the year in warm climates. It is a popular choice for trellises, fences, and walls due to its vibrant and longlasting blooms.
511. Which of the following shrubs bears yellow flowers?
a. Jasminum sambac
b. Tabernaemontana divaricata
c. Thevetia peruviana
d. Hibiscus rosasinensis
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Thevetia peruviana. Thevetia peruviana, also known as yellow oleander or lucky nut, bears yellow flowers. It is a shrub or small tree native to tropical regions and is cultivated for its ornamental value.
512. Which of the following ground covers is highly salt tolerant?
a. Vinca rosea
b. Bermuda grass
c. Mesembryanthemum
d. Alternanthera
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Mesembryanthemum. Mesembryanthemum, also known as ice plant or pigface, is highly salttolerant and is often used as a ground cover in coastal areas or saline soils. Its succulent leaves help it withstand saline conditions.
513. Which of the following shrubs is used as a fruit beauty?
a. Cassia glauca
b. Nerium oleander
c. Citrus mitis
d. Hibiscus rosasinensis
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Citrus mitis. Citrus mitis, commonly known as calamondin or calamansi, is used as a fruit bearing shrub prized for its small, round, orange fruits. It is often cultivated for ornamental purposes as well as for its edible fruit.
514. Which of the following trees has stem beauty?
a. Eucalyptus
b. Sterculia
c. Royal palm
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Eucalyptus, Sterculia, and royal palm are all trees known for their attractive stems or trunks, which contribute to their aesthetic appeal in landscaping and ornamental gardening.
515. English Ivy (Hedera helix) is:
a. Evergreen ground cover
b. Evergreen shrub
c. Deciduous shrub
d. Deciduous ground cover
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Evergreen ground cover. English Ivy (Hedera helix) is an evergreen ground cover, valued for its ability to provide yearround greenery and its ability to grow in shady areas where other plants may struggle.
516. Jacaranda mimosifolia has:
a. Red flowers
b. Yellow flowers
c. White flowers
d. Purple flowers
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Purple flowers. Jacaranda mimosifolia, commonly known as the jacaranda tree, produces striking clusters of purple flowers, which are a hallmark of its ornamental beauty.
517. Which of the following is an evergreen shrub?
a. Lagerstroemia indica
b. Pittosporum tobira
c. Caesalpinia pulcherrima
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Pittosporum tobira. Pittosporum tobira, commonly known as Japanese pittosporum or mock orange, is an evergreen shrub prized for its glossy foliage and fragrant flowers. It retains its leaves throughout the year, making it an excellent choice for year round landscaping.
518. Lawn grasses can be established by:
a. Seeding
b. Sodding
c. Plugging
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Lawn grasses can be established by seeding, sodding (laying down pregrown turf), or plugging (planting small sections of sod or grass).
519. Tifdwarf is a:
a. Weed
b. Shrub
c. Turfgrass
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Turfgrass. Tifdwarf is a type of turfgrass, specifically a variety of Bermuda grass commonly used on golf courses for putting greens.
520. Gladiolus is propagated through:
a. Bulbs
b. Corms
c. Tubers
d. Rhizomes
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Corms. Gladiolus is propagated through corms, which are underground storage organs similar to bulbs but with a different internal structure.
521. Rose budded at 3 ½ feet height is called:
a. Miniature rose
b. Standard rose
c. Half standard rose
d. Climbing rose
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Half standard rose. A rose budded at 3 ½ feet height is typically referred to as a half standard rose. This refers to a rose plant that has been grafted onto a taller rootstock, resulting in a plant with a standardsized bush but a shorter trunk.
522. Most house plants, except cacti, prefer a highly organic and:
a. Neutral growing medium
b. Alkaline growing medium
c. Acidic growing medium
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Neutral growing medium. Most house plants, except for cacti and other succulents, prefer a neutral pH in their growing medium. A highly organic growing medium provides nutrients and retains.
517. Which of the following is an evergreen shrub?
a. Lagerstroemia indica
b. Pittosporum tobira
c. Caesalpinia pulcherrima
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Pittosporum tobira. Pittosporum tobira is an evergreen shrub known for its glossy green leaves and fragrant white flowers, making it a popular choice in landscaping for yearround greenery.
518. Lawn grasses can be established by:
a. Seeding
b. Sodding
c. Plugging
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of the above. Lawn grasses can be established by seeding (planting grass seeds), sodding (laying down pregrown turf), or plugging (planting small sections of sod or grass).
519. Tif dwarf is a:
a. Weed
b. Shrub
c. Turfgrass
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Turfgrass. Tifdwarf is a type of turfgrass, specifically a variety of Bermuda grass, commonly used on golf courses for putting greens due to its fine texture and dense growth habit.
520. Gladiolus is propagated through:
a. Bulbs
b. Corms
c. Tubers
d. Rhizomes
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Corms. Gladiolus is propagated through corms, which are swollen underground stems that store food and nutrients for the plant.
521. Rose budded at 3 ½ feet height is called:
a. Miniature rose
b. Standard rose
c. Half standard rose
d. Climbing rose
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Half standard rose. A rose budded at 3 ½ feet height is typically referred to as a half standard rose. This refers to a rose plant that has been grafted onto a taller rootstock, resulting in a plant with a standard sized bush but a shorter trunk.
522. Most house plants, except cacti, prefer a highly organic and:
a. Neutral growing medium
b. Alkaline growing medium
c. Acidic growing medium
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is a. Neutral growing medium. Most house plants, except for cacti and succulents, prefer a neutral pH in their growing medium. A highly organic growing medium provides nutrients and retains moisture without becoming too acidic or alkaline.
523. Ficus pumila is a
a. Shrub
b. Tree
c. Creeper
d. Annual
Explanation: The correct answer is c. Creeper. Ficus pumila, also known as creeping fig or climbing fig, is a species of flowering plant in the mulberry family. It is a creeping vine that climbs by means of aerial roots and is often used as a decorative plant in gardens and landscapes.
524. Which of the following trees is commonly used in the landscape of arid zones?
a. Ficus benjamina
b. Pithecellobium dulce
c. Pinus longifolia
d. Prosopis juliflora
Explanation: The correct answer is d. Prosopis juliflora. Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite or algaroba, is a droughttolerant tree species commonly used in the landscape of arid zones. It is valued for its ability to thrive in dry conditions and provide shade and shelter.
525. Which of the following shrubs has white fragrant flowers?
a. Tabernaemontana divaricata
b. Gardenia florida
c. Thevetia neriifolia
d. Lantana camara
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Gardenia florida. Gardenia florida, also known as cape jasmine, is a shrub known for its white, highly fragrant flowers. It is prized for its ornamental value and is often used in gardens and landscapes for its beautiful blooms and pleasant fragrance.
526. Commercial flower crops are sometimes watered to cause leaching. This means:
a. Watering to spread fertilizer nutrients more evenly throughout the plant root system
b. Watering to remove excess soluble salts from the growing medium
c. Watering only to wet the top 1/3 of the growing medium
d. Watering by subsurface methods
Explanation: The correct answer is b. Watering to remove excess soluble salts from the growing medium. Leaching involves applying water to a growing medium to flush out excess salts that may have accumulated from fertilizers or other sources. This helps prevent salt buildup, which can be harmful to plants.
527. Most grass species utilized for turf are characterized by:
a. Prostrate creeping
b. Fine to medium texture
c. Short basal nodes
d. All of above
Explanation: The correct answer is d. All of above. Most grass species used for turf have characteristics such as prostrate creeping growth habit, fine to medium texture, and short basal nodes. These traits make them wellsuited for lawns and turf applications.
528. Which of the following trees change foliage color during winter?
a. Albizzia lebbek
b. Delonix regia
c. Sapium sebeferum
d. Thuja orientalis
Answer: d. Thuja orientalis
Explanation: Thuja orientalis, commonly known as Oriental arborvitae or Chinese thuja, is a tree species that changes foliage color during winter, often turning brown or bronze.
529. Which of the following plants is known as desert saroo?
a. Populus nigra
b. Bahinia varigata
c. Sapium seveferum
d. Casuarina equistifolia
Answer: c. Sapium seveferum
Explanation: Sapium seveferum is known as desert saroo. It is a shrub or small tree native to arid regions and is often found in desert landscapes.
530. Which of the following climbers belongs to the family Oleaceae?
a. Tecoma grandiflora
b. Lonicera japonica
c. Bougainvillea glabra
d. Jasminum grandiflora
Answer: d. Jasminum grandiflora
Explanation: Jasminum grandiflora, commonly known as Spanish jasmine or Royal jasmine, belongs to the family Oleaceae. It is a climbing plant valued for its fragrant white flowers.
531. Tecoma stans is a
a. Shrub
b. Tree
c. Creeper
d. None of above
Answer: a. Shrub
Explanation: Tecoma stans is a shrub species native to the Americas. It is commonly known as yellow trumpetbush or yellow bells due to its bright yellow flowers.
532. Light intensity is expressed as:
a. Footcandles
b. Micrometers
c. Candlelights
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Footcandles
Explanation: Light intensity is commonly expressed as footcandles, which measure the amount of light falling on a surface. It indicates the brightness of light available for plant growth.
533. The purpose of staking is to
a. Protect the trunk
b. Prevent root damage due to wind action
c. Prevent wind injury to branches
d. Prevent damage due to frost.
Answer: c. Prevent wind injury to branches
Explanation: Staking is often used in gardening to support young or weak plants and prevent wind injury to their branches. It helps keep the plant upright and stable during windy conditions.
534. Japanese style of floral arrangement is known as:
a. Ikenobo
b. Yen
c. Ikebana
d. Ying
Answer: c. Ikebana
Explanation: Ikebana is the Japanese art of floral arrangement. It emphasizes harmony, balance, and simplicity in the arrangement of flowers, branches, and leaves.
535. Dacca is a selected variety of:
a. Herb
b. Shrub
c. Turfgrass
d. None of these
Answer: c. Turfgrass
Explanation: Dacca is a selected variety of turfgrass. It is cultivated for its desirable characteristics such as fine texture, dense growth, and ability to withstand foot traffic.
536. Growing medium kept too wet will deprive the plant:
a. Soluble salts
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Fertilizer
Answer: c. Oxygen
Explanation: If the growing medium is kept too wet, it can deprive the plant roots of oxygen, leading to root suffocation and potential damage or death of the plant.
537. The interrelationship of size with floral arrangement to its surroundings is:
a. Harmony
b. Rhythm
c. Scale
d. Balance
Answer: c. Scale
Explanation: Scale refers to the interrelationship of size between elements in a floral arrangement and its surroundings. It ensures that the arrangement is proportionate and harmonious with its environment.
538. A climbing plant with woody stem is called
a. Vine
b. Liana
c. Hedge
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Liana
Explanation: A climbing plant with a woody stem is called a liana. Lianas are characteristic of tropical forests and use trees or other supports to climb towards the canopy to access sunlight.
539. Hard, thorny structures which protect the buds of woody plants during winter are termed as:
a. Nodes
b. Scales
c. Bracts
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Scales
Explanation: Scales are hard, protective structures found on buds of woody plants during winter. They help shield the delicate bud tissues from cold temperatures and harsh weather conditions.
540. A common example of an incomplete flower is:
a. Apetalous flower
b. Staminate flower
c. Pistillate flower
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: An incomplete flower is one that lacks one or more of the four main floral parts (sepals, petals, stamens, and pistils). Examples include apetalous flowers (lacking petals), staminate flowers (lacking pistils), and pistillate flowers (lacking stamens).
541. To preserve the germination ability of most seeds, store them in a:
a. Warm, dry environment
b. Cool, dry environment
c. Cool environment after scarification
d. Warm, moist environment after stratification
Answer: b. Cool, dry environment
Explanation: To preserve the germination ability of most seeds, it is best to store them in a cool, dry environment. This helps prevent premature germination or deterioration of seed viability.
542. The soil pH level primarily controls:
a. Soil temperature
b. Activity of soilborne diseases
c. Moisture absorption by roots
d. Availability of essential plant nutrients
Answer: d. Availability of essential plant nutrients
Explanation: The soil pH level primarily controls the availability of essential plant nutrients. Different nutrients are more or less available to plants depending on the pH level of the soil.
543. Which of the following is a shade loving flower?
a. Marigold
b. Snapdragon
c. Chrysanthemum
d. Impatiens
Answer: d. Impatiens
Explanation: Impatiens is a shade loving flower that thrives in partial to full shade conditions. It is commonly used in shaded garden beds and containers for its colorful blooms and low maintenance nature.
544. Plants which flower on the previous season growth:
a. Should be pruned after flowering.
b. Do not need to be pruned
c. Should be pruned in the dormant stage.
d. Should be cut back heavily in late summer.
Answer: a. Should be pruned after flowering.
Explanation: Plants that flower on previous season growth should be pruned after flowering to encourage new growth and flowering for the next season. Pruning at this time helps maintain the plant’s shape and vigor.
545. The most common summer cooling system in greenhouses is:
a. Package evaporative coolers
b. Fantube cooling system
c. Fog evaporative cooling
d. Fanandpad evaporative cooling
Answer: d. Fanandpad evaporative cooling
Explanation: Fanandpad evaporative cooling is the most common summer cooling system in greenhouses. It involves the use of fans to draw outside air through wet pads, where it is cooled by evaporation before entering the greenhouse.
546. All of the following are bulbous and tuberousrooted plants except:
a. Dahlias
b. Dutch iris
c. Caladiums
d. Snapdragons
Answer: d. Snapdragons
Explanation: Snapdragons are not bulbous or tuberous rooted plants. They belong to the genus Antirrhinum and are herbaceous perennials grown from seeds or cuttings.
547. involves incorporating watersoluble fertilizer into the irrigation systems of greenhouse and nursery crops.
a. Broadcasting
b. Fertilization
c. Fertigation
d. Perforation
Answer: c. Fertigation
Explanation: Fertigation involves incorporating water soluble fertilizer into the irrigation systems of greenhouse and nursery crops. It allows for precise and efficient delivery of nutrients directly to the plant roots.
548. Which of the tree bears red color flowers?
a. Erythrena subrosa
b. Albizia lebbek
c. Sapium sebiferum
d. Thuja orientalus
Answer: a. Erythrena subrosa
Explanation: Erythrina suberosa, commonly known as the Indian coral tree, bears red color flowers. It is a tropical tree species native to South Asia.
549. Which of the following plants is evergreen?
a. Papulus nigra
b. Bohinia verigata
c. Eucalyptus rostrata
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Eucalyptus rostrata
Explanation: Eucalyptus rostrata, commonly known as the red gum, is an evergreen plant species native to Australia. It retains its foliage throughout the year, making it evergreen.
550. Lack of early spring flowering from tulip bulbs planted outdoors is due to:
a. Bright sunlight
b. Lack of winter cooling
c. Excessive moisture
d. Magnesium and calcium deficiencies
Answer: b. Lack of winter cooling
Explanation: Tulip bulbs require a period of winter cooling, known as vernalization, to stimulate flowering. If they do not receive adequate winter chilling, they may fail to bloom in early spring.
551. A leaf with parallel venation:
a. Has leaflets
b. Is a monocot
c. Has crossing veins
d. Is a compound leaf
Answer: b. Is a monocot
Explanation: Leaves with parallel venation are characteristic of monocot plants, such as grasses and lilies. In contrast, dicot leaves typically have reticulate venation, with branching veins.
552. When making handtied bouquets, the stems should be positioned:
a. Parallel to each other
b. Perpendicular to each other
c. Any way that looks nice and holds together
d. In a spiraling manner
Answer: d. In a spiraling manner
Explanation: When making handtied bouquets, arranging the stems in a spiraling manner helps create a natural and balanced appearance. This arrangement technique allows the flowers to be evenly distributed and supported by each other.
553. Which of the following is not a method for sterilizing plant growing medium?
a. Steaming
b. Baking
c. Using chemical fumigants
d. Keeping the growing medium moist for 6 to 7 days
Answer: d. Keeping the growing medium moist for 6 to 7 days
Explanation: Keeping the growing medium moist for several days is not a method for sterilizing it. Methods such as steaming, baking, and using chemical fumigants are commonly used to sterilize plant growing medium and eliminate pathogens.
554. Which of the following is not among the major principles of design?
a. Balance
b. Scale
c. Emphasis
d. Price
Answer: d. Price
Explanation: Price is not one of the major principles of design in horticulture or floral arrangement. The major principles typically include balance, scale, emphasis, rhythm, and harmony.
555. The showy red, pink, or white portion of the poinsettia are:
a. Flowers
b. Bracts
c. Petals
d. Sepals
Answer: b. Bracts
Explanation: The showy red, pink, or white portion of the poinsettia plant are actually specialized leaves called bracts. The true flowers are small and yellow, located at the center of the bracts.
556. A technique to produce well branched, compact plants with many flowers is:
a. Stunting
b. Compacting
c. Pinching
d. Potting
Answer: c. Pinching
Explanation: Pinching is a technique used to promote branching and compact growth in plants. By removing the terminal buds or tips of young shoots, the plant is encouraged to produce lateral branches, resulting in a fuller appearance and more flowers.
557. Which of the following is a member of the Dianthus family?
a. Chrysanthemum
b. Phlox
c. Sedum
d. Carnation
Answer: d. Carnation
Explanation: Carnation is a member of the Dianthus family. Dianthus is a genus of flowering plants in the family Caryophyllaceae, which includes carnations, pinks, and sweet williams.
558. Which of the shrubs bears red color flowers?
a. Atriplex halimus
b. Tecoma stans
c. Jatropha multifida
d. Jasminum sambac
Answer: c. Jatropha multifida
Explanation: Jatropha multifida, commonly known as the coral plant or physic nut, bears red color flowers. It is a tropical shrub or small tree native to the Caribbean and Central America.
559. The acceleration of flowering by manipulating environmental conditions is known as:
a. Pulsing
b. Forcing
c. Leaching
d. After-ripening
Answer: b. Forcing
Explanation: Forcing is the acceleration of flowering in plants by manipulating environmental conditions such as temperature, light, and humidity. This technique is commonly used in commercial horticulture to produce offseason blooms for market.
560. Which shrub has white color flowers with fragrance?
a. Tabernaemontana divaricata
b. Hibiscus rosasinensis
c. Thevetia peruviana
d. Jasminum sambac
Answer: a. Tabernaemontana divaricata
Explanation: Taberna Montana divaricata, commonly known as the pinwheel flower or jasmine orange, has white color flowers with a sweet fragrance. It is a shrub native to India and Southeast Asia, often cultivated for its ornamental value and aromatic flowers.
561. Peat is often mixed into the growing medium of container plants because it:
a. Is in expensive
b. Has good air and water holding capacities
c. Has a high pH
d. Absorbs excessive soluble salts
Answer: b. Has good air and water holding capacities
Explanation: Peat is commonly mixed into growing mediums for container plants because it has excellent air and water holding capacities. It helps to maintain proper soil moisture levels and promotes root growth.
562. The two most practical means of the homeowner to control insects and diseases are:
a. Mechanical and chemical
b. Mechanical and biological
c. Chemical and biological
d. Biological and natural
Answer: a. Mechanical and chemical
Explanation: The two most practical means for homeowners to control insects and diseases are mechanical methods (such as handpicking pests or using barriers) and chemical methods (such as applying insecticides or fungicides).
563. In temperate climates, pruning should not be done near the end of the summer because:
a. New growth will not harden before winter
b. It may increase foliage disease
c. Plants will not recover in time to produce new growth before winter
d. Sever “bleeding” from the cuts will kill the plant
Answer: a. New growth will not harden before winter
Explanation: Pruning near the end of summer in temperate climates can stimulate new growth that may not have time to harden before winter, increasing the risk of frost damage to the plant.
564. A plant hardy in a tropical zone will also be hardy in zone:
a. Temperate
b. Subtropical
c. Arid
d. Semiarid
Answer: b. Subtropical
Explanation: If a plant is hardy in a tropical zone, it will generally also be hardy in a subtropical zone. Subtropical climates have warmer temperatures than temperate zones but cooler temperatures than tropical zones, making them suitable for many of the same plant species.
565. A person who designs, establishes, and maintains small scale landscape projects is:
a. The garden superintendent
b. The landscape nurseryman
c. The garden center manager
d. The landscape architect
Answer: d. The landscape architect
Explanation: A landscape architect is a professional who designs, establishes, and maintains smallscale landscape projects, including residential gardens and outdoor spaces. They have expertise in design principles, plant selection, and project management.
566. During dry periods, landscape plants should be:
a. Watered lightly every day
b. Watered heavily once each 710 days
c. Watered and fertilized heavily each week
d. Watered only after darkness
Answer: b. Watered heavily once each 710 days
Explanation: During dry periods, it is generally better to water landscape plants deeply and infrequently rather than lightly every day. Deep watering encourages deep root growth and helps plants withstand periods of drought.
567. Both asphalt and concrete are used for hard surfacing driveways. Which of the following is true for asphalt?
a. The thickness of asphalt needed for a driveway is less than the thickness of concrete needed for a driveway.
b. Asphalt should be pitched to promote drainage
c. Asphalt does not need a porous base material
d. Asphalt is crowned to promote drainage
Answer: a. The thickness of asphalt needed for a driveway is less than the thickness of concrete needed for a driveway.
Explanation: Asphalt driveways typically require less thickness than concrete driveways, making them a costeffective option for surfacing. However, both asphalt and concrete driveways should be properly graded or pitched to promote drainage.
568. Pinus halipensis is very healthy growing in:
a. Tropical zone
b. Subtropical zone
c. All of the above zones
d. None of the above zones
Answer: d. None of the above zones
Explanation: Pinus halipensis, commonly known as Aleppo pine, is native to the Mediterranean region and is adapted to Mediterranean climates, which are characterized by mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. It is not typically found in tropical or subtropical zones.
569. The design principle of total compatibility of all parts of an arrangement with each other is:
a. Transition
b. Texture
c. Harmony
d. Proportion
Answer: c. Harmony
Explanation: Harmony is the design principle that refers to the total compatibility of all parts of an arrangement with each other. It involves creating a sense of unity and cohesion among the elements of a design.
570. For optimum vase life, most cut flowers should be stored at temperatures close to:
a. 40 ºF
b. 45 ºF
c. 30 ºF
d. 50 ºF
Answer: a. 40 ºF
Explanation: For optimum vase life, most cut flowers should be stored at temperatures around 40 ºF (4 ºC). This temperature helps slow down the aging process and prolongs the freshness of the flowers.
571. Which of the following statements is true.
a. Perennials are used for one season.
b. Perennials are good plants for the garden with low maintenance costs.
c. Perennials are not easy to grow and establish in beds.
d. Perennials are only for foliage beauty.
Answer: b. Perennials are good plants for the garden with low maintenance costs.
Explanation: Perennials are plants that live for more than two years, often returning year after year. They are valued in gardens for their longevity, and many require minimal maintenance once established. They can provide a variety of benefits, including flowers, foliage, and habitat for wildlife.
572. Which of these perennials is known for its low, spreading growth habit?
a. Cimicifuga
b. Coreopsis
c. Vinca
d. Gaillardia
Explanation: Vinca is a perennial ground cover that is known for its low, spreading growth habit, making it an excellent choice for filling in spaces in the garden.
573. Among these perennials, which one boasts the most diverse array of varieties?
a. Verbena
b. Geranium
c. Helenium
d. Ghazania
Explanation: Geraniums, also known as cranesbills, offer a wide range of varieties, including different flower colors, sizes, and growth habits, making them popular choices for gardeners seeking variety.
574. Which of these perennials is recognized for its hardiness and blooms in shades of blue and lavender?
a. Alyssum
b. Calendula
c. Verbena
d. Dianthus
Explanation: Dianthus is a hardy perennial known for its fragrant, colorful flowers, including varieties that bloom in shades of blue and lavender.
575. What is the primary auxin produced in plants?
a. Ethylene
b. Indole3acetic acid (IAA)
c. Indole3butyric acid (IBA)
d. Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA)
Explanation: Indole3acetic acid (IAA) is the primary auxin produced in plants and plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including cell elongation and root development.
576. When plant cells are turgid, what is their condition?
a. Deflated
b. Joined with other cells
c. Inflated
d. Ruptured
Explanation: Turgid plant cells are swollen and firm due to the uptake of water, which exerts pressure against the cell wall, causing them to become rigid and inflated.
577. Which statement about annual plants is true?
a. Annuals usually bloom only once each season.
b. Annuals are only planted in spring.
c. Annuals can survive in the severe winter without protection.
d. Annuals are only used for foliage beauty.
Explanation: Annuals are known for their ability to bloom continuously throughout the growing season, providing color and interest in the garden. They can be planted at various times depending on the climate and are valued for their colorful blooms as well as foliage beauty.
578. Which statement accurately describes the use of annual plants?
a. Annuals are used as border plants.
b. Annuals are used as ground covers.
c. Annuals are used as surface material.
d. Annuals are used for all the above purposes.
Explanation: Annuals are versatile plants used in landscaping for various purposes, including as border plants, ground covers, and surface material in containers and flower beds.
579. For what purpose is Verbena commonly used?
a. Verbena is used for bedding purpose.
b. Verbena is used for hedge purpose.
c. Verbena is used for climbing purpose.
d. Verbena is used for border purpose.
Explanation: Verbena is often used as a bedding plant due to its low, spreading growth habit and colorful blooms, which make it ideal for creating vibrant garden beds and borders.
580. What makes Pansy a popular annual choice?
a. Pansy is favored for its stem and foliage beauty.
b. Pansy is valued for its hardiness as a ground cover.
c. Pansy thrives when planted under shade.
d. Pansy is sought after for its mix of colorful flowers in bedding displays.
Explanation: Pansies are beloved annuals known for their bright, cheerful flowers and compact growth habit, making them a popular choice for adding color to flower beds, containers, and borders.
581. Which of these annuals is commonly grown as a vine?
a. Marigold
b. Verbena
c. Ipomea
d. Salvia
Explanation: Ipomoea, commonly known as morning glory, is a popular annual vine valued for its vigorous growth and colorful trumpet shaped flowers.
582. Which annual plant is frequently used as ground cover?
a. Viola
b. Stock
c. Musember anthemum
d. Calendula
Explanation: Calendula, also known as pot marigold, is often used as ground cover due to its spreading growth habit and vibrant orange or yellow flowers, which provide excellent coverage in garden beds and borders.
583. Which of the following annuals is typically utilized in rock gardens?
a. Morning glory
b. Cosmos
c. Dianthus
d. Clarkia
Explanation: Dianthus is often chosen for rock gardens due to its low growing habit and ability to thrive in rocky, well drained soil conditions.
584. Among these annuals, which one is primarily valued for its foliage?
a. Kochia
b. Phlox
c. Antirrhinum
d. Portulaca
Explanation: Kochia, also known as summer cypress, is prized for its dense, feathery foliage, which adds texture and visual interest to garden beds and containers.
585. What is the recommended average humidity percentage for interior plants?
a. 70 to 100%
b. 20 to 30%
c. 10 to 20%
d. 40 to 70%
Explanation: Interior plants typically thrive in environments with humidity levels ranging from 40 to 70%, providing the necessary moisture for healthy growth.
586. The bract that encloses a flower cluster is known as a:
a. Spathe
b. Quill
c. Petal
d. Spike
Explanation: A spathe is a specialized leaflike bract that surrounds and protects a flower cluster, commonly found in plants like peace lilies and certain types of palms.
587. When should broadleaf evergreens like Ficus bengalensis and Alstonia scholaris be fertilized?
a. Late summer
b. Early spring
c. Late fall
d. Early summer
Explanation: Broadleaf evergreens benefit from fertilization in early spring, just before the start of their active growing season, to support healthy foliage development.
588. What is a major problem in standard carnation production resulting in asymmetrical flowers?
a. Calyx splitting
b. Lack of pinching
c. High density spacing
d. Improper fertilization
Explanation: Calyx splitting, which occurs due to rapid growth or changes in environmental conditions, can lead to asymmetrical flowers in standard carnations, impacting their market value.
589. What is generally added to water when processing flowers in a retail floral shop?
a. Biocide
b. Herbicide
c. Insecticide
d. Algicide
Explanation: Biocides, which are chemicals designed to inhibit microbial growth and extend the vase life of cut flowers, are commonly added to water in retail floral shops to maintain flower freshness.
590. What is the genus and species name for the ponytail palm?
a. Moluccella laevis
b. Beaucarnea recurvata
c. Cordyline terminalis
d. Brassaia actinophylla
Explanation: The ponytail palm is scientifically known as Beaucarnea recurvata and is valued as a low maintenance houseplant with a distinctive swollen trunk and long, slender leaves.
591. What is the term for training plants into three dimensional ornamental forms, such as animals?
a. Bonsai
b. Topiary
c. Heading back.
d. Espalier
Explanation: Topiary refers to the art of training and pruning plants into intricate, sculptural shapes, often seen in formal gardens and landscapes.
592. How do clay soils typically compare to sandy soils in terms of water absorption time?
a. About the same time for absorption of irrigation water as sandy soils
b. More or less time for absorption than sandy soils, depending on the pH of the clay
c. A shorter time for absorption of irrigation water than sandy soils
d. A longer time for absorption of irrigation water than sandy soils
Explanation: Clay soils generally require a longer time for absorption of irrigation water than sandy soils due to their finer texture and higher water retention capacity.
593. What term describes plants that have been clipped or pruned into two dimensional forms?
a. Topiary
b. Espalier
c. Balanced
d. Dynamic
Explanation: Espalier refers to the horticultural practice of training plants, usually trees or shrubs, to grow flat against a support structure, such as a wall or trellis, in a two dimensional form.
594. How should a transplanted tree or shrub be set into the ground?
a. At the same depth at which it was originally growing
b. With the top of the container slightly covered
c. So that the top roots are exposed to the air
d. 50 percent deeper than it was originally planted
Explanation: A transplanted tree or shrub should be set into the ground at the same depth at which it was originally growing to avoid issues like root suffocation or exposure.
595. What is the main commercial method for propagating African violets?
a. Crowns
b. Seeds
c. Tubers
d. Leaf petioles
Explanation: African violets are primarily propagated commercially through leaf petioles, which are cuttings taken from the base of mature leaves and rooted to produce new plants.
596. What causes damping off in plants?
a. Fungi
b. Bacteria
c. Virus
d. Nematodes
Explanation: Damping off is a common fungal disease that affects seedlings, causing them to rot at the soil line and collapse. It is often caused by soilborne pathogens and poor growing conditions.
597. Which of the following is a group of terms related to landscape design principles?
a. Focalization, proportion, simplicity
b. Hogarth, symmetrical, curvature
c. Thresh, rounding, complexity
d. Stratify, random, curvature
Explanation: Focalization, proportion, and simplicity are terms related to landscape design principles, emphasizing the importance of focal points, balanced proportions, and simple, harmonious compositions in garden design.
598. Why do plants usually not grow well in poorly drained soils?
a. Oxygen content is low in poorly drained soils
b. Poorly drained soils warm too quickly in spring
c. The organic matter content of poorly drained soils is too high
d. Plant roots become engorged with water in poorly drained soils
Explanation: Poorly drained soils often have low oxygen content, which can suffocate plant roots and lead to root rot and other health issues, inhibiting plant growth and development.
599. To make the living area of a landscape appear larger, what type of flowers should a designer include?
a. Coolcolored flowers such as blues, purples, lavenders
b. A combination of warm and cool colored flowers
c. Warm colored flowers such as reds, oranges, yellows
d. All white flowers
Explanation: Coolcolored flowers such as blues, purples, and lavenders create an illusion of depth and distance, making the living area of a landscape appear larger than it actually is.
600. Among these turf areas, which one is typically mowed to the lowest height?
a. Golf green
b. Commercial lawn
c. Golf fairway
d. Home lawn
Explanation: The golf green is typically mowed to the lowest height among these turf areas to maintain a smooth, even surface for putting and gameplay.
Horticulture mcq Part 4th
601. In plants, what process involves converting stored energy into energy for plant growth?
a. Respiration
b. Transpiration
c. Photosynthesis
d. Pollination
Explanation: Respiration is the process by which plants convert stored energy, typically in the form of carbohydrates, into energy for growth, metabolism, and other physiological functions.
602. What does a landscape designer use in developing the preliminary design for a project?
a. Perfect plans
b. Site surveys
c. Problem statements
d. Bubble diagrams
Explanation: Landscape designers typically use bubble diagrams, also known as conceptual diagrams, in the initial stages of developing a preliminary design for a project. These diagrams help organize spatial relationships and identify key elements within the landscape.
603. Which of the following is an example of an organic material?
a. Vermiculite
b. Perlite
c. Leaf mold
d. Pea gravel
Explanation: Leaf mold, which is decayed organic matter derived from decomposed leaves, is an example of an organic material commonly used in gardening to improve soil structure and fertility.
604. What term refers to the loss of water in the form of vapor from the surface of plant leaves?
a. Transpiration
b. Condensation
c. Respiration
d. Oxidation
Explanation: Transpiration is the process by which plants lose water vapor through tiny pores called stomata on the surface of their leaves, helping to regulate internal temperature and maintain hydration.
605. What is the basic underlying principle of using a mist propagation system?
a. Cools the propagation medium to promote root formation and development.
b. Keeps the plant material cool
c. Increases humidity around the cutting and reduces transpiration.
d. Keeps the propagation medium uniformly moist and supplies moisture to the base of the cuttings
Explanation: The mist propagation system primarily aims to keep the propagation medium uniformly moist and supply moisture to the base of the cuttings, promoting successful rooting.
606. Where should lowgrowing landscape plants typically be positioned?
a. Be planted under large trees
b. Be placed in front of intermediate growing plants
c. Be placed behind intermediate growing plants
d. Not be used in the landscape
Explanation: Low growing landscape plants are often best placed in front of intermediate growing plants to create depth and visual interest in the landscape design.
607. In a landscape design, what role do properly located plants and structures play?
a. Can reduce heat intensity
b. Block the view of the front door
c. Need to be constantly pruned and maintained
d. Are not essential for a good landscape design
Explanation: Properly located plants and structures in a landscape design can help reduce heat intensity, provide visual interest, and contribute to the overall functionality and aesthetic appeal of the outdoor space.
608. Which of the following is a shade loving border plant?
a. Chrysanthemum
b. Marigold
c. Impatiens
d. Zinnia
Explanation: Impatiens is a shade loving border plant commonly used to add color and texture to shaded garden areas.
609. What term describes a plant that dies to the ground at the end of each growing season but regrows from the same root stubs?
a. Annual
b. Herbaceous perennial
c. Perennial
d. Biennial
Explanation: A plant that dies to the ground at the end of each growing season but regrows from the same root stubs is most accurately described as an herbaceous perennial.
610. What is true about the two basic types of pruning, heading back and thinning out?
a. Heading cuts remove a portion of the stem and only terminal buds are left
b. Thinning cuts are made close to a main branch or ground, leaving few axillary buds
c. Thinning cuts leave behind a good portion of the stem and many axillary buds
d. Heading cuts usually remove entire branches and leave no buds
Explanation: Thinning cuts leave behind a good portion of the stem and many axillary buds, while heading cuts remove a portion of the stem, leaving only terminal buds.
611. Lowering the soil grade around a tree primarily removes many of the tree’s __________ roots.
a. Aquatic
b. Tap
c. Feeder
d. Aerial
Explanation: Lowering the soil grade around a tree primarily removes many of the tree’s feeder roots, which are essential for absorbing water and nutrients from the soil.
612. When selecting trees for the landscape, what factors should be considered along with water availability and temperature extremes?
a. Slope
b. Soil type
c. Topography
d. Buildings present
Explanation: Along with water availability and temperature extremes, factors such as soil type, slope, topography, and the presence of nearby buildings should be considered when selecting trees for the landscape.
613. How are lawn sprinkler systems installed to provide even coverage?
a. Using one size pipe throughout the landscape
b. Spacing sprinklers based on needs specified in the soil test
c. Using sprinkler heads with a square pattern throughout the landscape.
d. Spacing the heads so that each sprinkler sprays to the next sprinkler.
Explanation: Lawn sprinkler systems are installed to provide even coverage by spacing the heads so that each sprinkler sprays to the next sprinkler, ensuring uniform irrigation across the landscape.
614. What does the term “callus” usually refer to?
a. The first tissue develops on a cut surface just before root formation initiates.
b. A disease of plant leaves and limbs
c. The tissue on the collar of a limb
d. Deformed growth on plant limbs
Explanation: The term “callus” usually refers to the first tissue that develops on a cut surface just before root formation initiates, serving as a precursor to root development in propagation.
615. What is a woody perennial that has more than one main trunk called?
a. Shrub
b. Flower
c. Tree
d. Weed
Explanation: A tree is a woody perennial that has more than one main trunk, distinguishing it from shrubs, which typically have multiple stems originating from the base.
616. What spring flowering bulb would be recommended for Mrs. Khan to plant?
a. Coleus x hybridus
b. Gardenia jasminoides
c. Lonicera japonica
d. Hyacinthus orientalis
Explanation: Hyacinthus orientalis, commonly known as hyacinth, is a popular spring flowering bulb that Mrs. Khan would likely enjoy planting for its vibrant blooms and fragrant flowers.
617. In nursery production, what does the term “liner” refer to?
a. A rooted cutting or small seedling
b. A plastic bag
c. A plastic mulch covering
d. A type of garden tool
Explanation: In nursery production, a “liner” typically refers to a rooted cutting or small seedling that serves as the starting material for further propagation or growth.
618. Which of the following is a deciduous vine?
a. English ivy
b. Tecoma grandiflora
c. Rosemary
d. Rosa marshenelle
Explanation: Rosa marshenelle, commonly known as climbing rose, is a deciduous vine that loses its leaves in the fall and regrows them in the spring, making it a suitable option for vertical coverage in the landscape.
619. What term describes the failure of a bulb to produce a marketable flower following floral initiation?
a. Flower blasting
b. Damping off
c. Disbudding
d. Dieback
Explanation: Flower blasting refers to the failure of a bulb to produce a marketable flower following floral initiation, often due to environmental stressors or improper cultural practices.
620. What is the proper recommendation for pruning trees at planting?
a. Pruning should be limited to shaping the plant by removing dead or damaged limbs
b. Trees should not be pruned until the third year after planting
c. Trees should be cut back to at least onehalf their size to prevent stress on root systems
d. Trees should not be pruned at all – the latest trend is to let them develop naturally
Explanation: Pruning at planting should be limited to shaping the plant by removing dead or damaged limbs, allowing the tree to establish its root system without unnecessary stress.
621. Why is manually watering a container plant until water comes out of the drainage holes effective?
a. Pesticides
b. Herbicides
c. Soluble salts
d. Pathogens
Explanation: Manually watering a container plant until water comes out of the drainage holes is effective for helping to reduce the buildup of soluble salts in the growing medium, which can accumulate over time and potentially harm plant roots.
622. What is one of the best ways to speed up the rooting process of cuttings?
a. Keep the soil cool and the foliage warm
b. Provide bottom heat
c. Always take cuttings after midday
d. Harden them off by laying them out to dry a few days before sticking
Explanation: Providing bottom heat is one of the best ways to speed up the rooting process of cuttings, as it creates favorable conditions for root initiation and development.
623. What area of the landscape includes space for items like a clothesline and garbage cans?
a. Service area
b. Public area
c. Recreational area
d. Private area
Explanation: The service area of the landscape includes space for items like a clothesline and garbage cans, serving functional purposes without being prominently displayed in the public or recreational areas.
624. What does the landscape design principle of interconnection refer to?
a. Is the overall organization and structure of a design
b. Is the human perception of space and form related to human dimension.
c. Occurs when visual components are physically linked together
d. Is a visual break in sequence
Explanation: The landscape design principle of interconnection occurs when visual components are physically linked together, creating cohesion and flow within the overall design.
625. What type of flower is often used as a focal point in landscaping?
a. Line
b. Mass
c. Spiketype
d. Form
Explanation: Spiketype flowers, characterized by tall, upright flower spikes, are often used as focal points in landscaping to add vertical interest and draw attention to specific areas of the garden.
626. Growing medium for greenhouse plant production is:
a. Unsterilized soil
b. Soil which hasn’t been graded for size
c. The cellular structures that make up wood
d. A nutritive substance in which seeds germinate and plants grow.
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)a nutritive substance in which seeds germinate and plants grow. This option describes the purpose and nature of a growing medium accurately.
627. The phenomenon of terminal plant growth suppressing lateral growth is termed as:
a. Lateral dominance
b. Terminal bud inhibition
c. The apex auxin complex
d. Apical dominance
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)apical dominance. This term refers to the inhibition of lateral growth by the terminal bud of a plant.
628. Some seeds are produced in the fall and remain on or in the ground until they germinate in the spring. Exposing seeds to the winter cold and moist soil is nature’s method of __________.
a. Acidifying
b. Scarifying
c. Sporulating
d. Stratifying
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)stratifying. This process refers to exposing seeds to cold and moist conditions to break dormancy.
629. The use of plant materials and landscaping techniques to conserve soil moisture and to reduce water usage is:
a. Natural landscaping
b. Xeriscaping
c. Waterscaping
d. Bogscaping
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)xeriscaping. This term refers to landscaping methods that minimize water usage.
630. Which of the following describes plants that lose their leaves during the winter?
a. Coniferous
b. Evergreen
c. Deciduous
d. Herbaceous
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)deciduous. Deciduous plants shed their leaves seasonally.
631. Hardiness refers to:
a. The quality of being strong and being able to survive in a certain region.
b. The strength of the wood of a tree
c. The hardness of the soil in which a plant is being planted
d. The ability of a plant to grow indoors
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)the quality of being strong and being able to survive in a certain region. Hardiness in plants refers to their ability to withstand environmental conditions.
632. Hardening off is a term used in the nursery/landscape industry to mean:
a. Allowing herbaceous plants to become woody
b. Acclimatizing landscape plants to coldframe conditions
c. Coating plants with a protective plastictype spray prior to transplanting
d. Acclimatizing tender plants to harsher, outdoor conditions
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)acclimatizing tender plants to harsher, outdoor conditions. This process helps plants transition from protected environments to outdoor conditions.
633. The removal of lateral flower buds from stems, such as carnations and chrysanthemums, is called:
a. Soft pinch
b. Deadheading
c. Hard pinch
d. Disbudding
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)disbudding. This practice helps focus a plant’s energy on producing larger flowers.
634. A lawn mower with blades parallel to the surface of the ground is called as:
a. Electric mower
b. Rotary mower
c. Reel mower
d. Dethatching mower
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)reel mower. Reel mowers have blades that rotate parallel to the ground, providing a precise cut.
635. The turfgrass least tolerant of shade is:
a. Fescue grass
b. Bermudagrass
c. Zoysia grass
d. St. Augustine grass
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Bermudagrass. Bermudagrass requires full sun and is less tolerant of shade compared to other turfgrasses.
636. Which of the following is not an important environmental requirement for germination to occur?
a. Proper temperature
b. Moisture
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)carbon dioxide. While carbon dioxide is involved in photosynthesis, it is not a direct requirement for germination.
637. Light energy, carbon dioxide, and water enter into the process of photosynthesis, through which:
a. Carbohydrates are formed
b. Respiration results
c. Chlorophyll is formed
d. Amino acids are formed
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)carbohydrates are formed. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy, carbon dioxide, and water into carbohydrates.
638. The most common synthetic rootpromoting chemicals are:
a. IBA and AAN
b. CCA and ACD
c. ISO and OSB
d. IBA and NAA
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)IBA and NAA. These are commonly used synthetic auxins that promote root development in plants.
639. What information is not mentioned in the legend on a final landscape plan?
a. Plant names
b. Specific notes concerning installation
c. Plant quantities
d. Designer’s name
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)designer’s name. The legend typically includes information such as plant names, quantities, and installation notes, but not the designer’s name.
640. When planting a barerooted tree, the tree should be planted:
a. At 6 inches above the original soil level
b. At 2 inches above the original soil level
c. At 6 inches below the original soil level
d. Directly even with the original soil level
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)directly even with the original soil level. Planting at the correct depth ensures proper root development and stability.
641. A major advantage for producing nursery stock in containers is that it:
a. Is less expensive than growing in nursery fields.
b. Allows for transplanting any time during the growing season.
c. Requires less water and fertilization than field grown crops
d. Requires less labor than field grown crops
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)allows for transplanting any time during the growing season. Container grown nursery stock offers flexibility in transplanting compared to field grown crops.
641. A method of fertilizer application is __________.
a. Sterilization
b. Pasteurizing
c. Side dressing
d. Leaching
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)side dressing. This involves applying fertilizer to the soil surface beside the plants to promote efficient nutrient uptake.
642. Brown patch, dollar spot, and gray snow mold are all diseases of:
a. Azaleas
b. Turfgrasses
c. Trees
d. Evergreens
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)turfgrasses. These diseases commonly affect turfgrasses and can cause significant damage if not managed properly.
643. Which plant is a vine?
a. Ficus benjamina
b. Pinus thunbergiana
c. Ilex cornuta
d. Lonicera japonica
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Lonicera japonica. It is commonly known as Japanese honeysuckle and is a type of vine.
644. Site features to consider when conducting a site survey include:
a. Topography, client analysis, natural features, and climate
b. Topography, soil conditions, natural features, and existing vegetation
c. Natural features, existing vegetation, soil conditions, and client analysis
d. Natural features, climate, existing vegetation, and client analysis
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)topography, soil conditions, natural features, and existing vegetation. These factors help in understanding the site’s characteristics for landscaping purposes.
645. Food produced in the leaves moves to other parts of a plant through:
a. Phloem tissues
b. Xylem tissues
c. Vein system
d. Arteries
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)phloem tissues. Phloem is responsible for transporting food (sugars) produced in the leaves to other parts of the plant for growth and metabolism.
646. When installing a landscape, which step (from the following list) should be completed last?
a. Install the drainage system
b. Build retaining walls and garden walkways
c. Add amendments to the soil
d. Plant the trees and shrubs
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Build retaining walls and garden walkways. This step typically comes last as it involves constructing permanent hardscape elements.
647. Examples of cool season grasses include perennial ryegrass, bent grass, and:
a. St. Augustine
b. Zoysia
c. Fescue
d. Bermudagrass
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Fescue. Fescue is a type of cool season grass commonly used in temperate climates.
648. Magnesium, calcium, and sulfur:
a. Are essential elements needed for plant processes
b. Can be found in incomplete fertilizers
c. Are microelements
d. Are only needed by some plants
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Are essential elements needed for plant processes. These elements are essential macronutrients required by plants for various physiological functions.
649. Functional roles of plants in the landscape do not include:
a. Enclosing
b. Greening up
c. Developing the structural framework of the design
d. Screening
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Developing the structural framework of the design. Plants play various functional roles in the landscape, but they do not directly develop the structural framework of the design.
650. Which of the following is a major reason for mulching landscape plants?
a. Attracts earthworms
b. Supplies nutrients
c. Moderates soil temperature and conserves soil moisture
d. Increases anti aerobic activity in the soil
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Moderates soil temperature and conserves soil moisture. Mulching helps regulate soil temperature, retain moisture, and suppress weed growth.
651. A plant that remains vegetative during its first season of growth and flowers in the second season is a (n):
a. Perennial
b. Propagule
c. Biennial
d. Annual
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Biennial. Biennial plants complete their life cycle over two growing seasons.
652. Most landscape plants like the soil pH:
a. Slightly acidic
b. Strongly acidic
c. Slightly alkaline
d. Strongly alkaline
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Slightly acidic. Most landscape plants prefer soil with a slightly acidic pH level for optimal growth.
653. When installing a landscape, which step (from the following list) should be completed first:
a. Plant the trees and shrubs
b. Add amendments to the soil
c. Install the drainage system
d. Build retaining walls and garden walkways
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Install the drainage system. Proper drainage is essential for preventing waterlogging and ensuring the health of landscape plants.
654. Wisteria, clematis, and Japanese honeysuckle are examples of:
a. Trees
b. Vines
c. Shrubs
d. Groundcovers
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Vines. Wisteria, clematis, and Japanese honeysuckle are all examples of climbing plants known as vines.
655. A flower container which is elevated on a base that may be short or long stemmed, is known as:
a. Vase
b. Bowl
c. Pedestal
d. Basket
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Pedestal. A pedestal is a flower container elevated on a base, providing height and elegance to floral arrangements.
656. Maximum interior plant deaths result from
a. Incorrect PH
b. Too much light
c. Too much fertilizer
d. Overwatering
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Overwatering. Overwatering is a common cause of interior plant deaths, leading to root rot and other water related issues.
657. In a residential landscape, the area between the house and the street is
a. Family living area
b. Public area
c. Service area
d. Private living area
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Public area. The area between the house and the street is typically considered part of the public space in a residential landscape.
658. A tool which is used for moving loose materials such as crushed stone, peat moss, etc., in landscape installation is known as:
a. Ball cart
b. Hand trowel
c. Shovel
d. Scoop
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Scoop. A scoop is a tool designed for moving loose materials during landscape installation.
659. Stabilization of large trees or multistemmed plants using wires and stakes of hardwood or metal is known as:
a. Guying
b. Staking
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Guying. Guying involves using wires and stakes to stabilize large trees or multi stemmed plants.
660. The angle at which a branch meets the trunk of the tree or another larger branch is:
a. Crotch
b. Canopy
c. Lead branch
d. Water sprout
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Crotch. The crotch is the junction where a branch meets the trunk of a tree or another larger branch.
661. Limbs are pruned from trees with a technique called
a. Thinning out
b. Heading back
c. Jump cutting
d. Pinching
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Thinning out. Thinning out involves selectively removing limbs or branches from a tree to improve its structure and health.
662. Clawlike appendages occurring in pairs at the base of the leaf blade of turfgrasses is:
a. Awn
b. Bract
c. Stipule
d. Auricle
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Auricle. Auricles are small, clawlike appendages found at the base of the leaf blade in some turfgrass species.
663. Combination of two or more cultivars of a single turfgrass species is known as:
a. Ball roll
b. Blend
c. Bench setting
d. Artificial turf
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Blend. A blend refers to a combination of two or more cultivars of a single turfgrass species, often used to achieve desired turf characteristics.
664. Dry, indehiscent, oneseeded fruit with a thin pericarp fused to seed coat is known as:
a. Achene
b. Pomes
c. Caryopsis
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Achene. An achene is a type of dry, indehiscent fruit with a single seed and a thin pericarp fused to the seed coat.
665. Pollination and fertilization within closed florets is:
a. Polygamy
b. Cleistogamy
c. Allogamy
d. Autogamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Cleistogamy. Cleistogamy refers to the pollination and fertilization of flowers that remain closed, often occurring within the same flower.
666. Stem of a grass plant is
a. Stalk
b. Cane
c. Culm
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Culm. In grasses, the stem is referred to as a culm.
667. In turfgrasses, a pair of bracts usually present at the base of a spikelet is known as:
a. Glumes
b. Auricles
c. Awns
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Glumes. Glumes are bracts found at the base of a spikelet in turfgrasses.
668. What is the axis of a spike or raceme?
a. Panicle
b. Peduncle
c. Rachis
d. Thalamus
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Rachis. The rachis is the central axis of a spike or raceme along which the individual flowers or florets are arranged.
669. After mowing turfgrasses, what is the layer of aboveground, green, living grass part called?
a. Wear
b. Verdure
c. Clipping
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Verdure. Verdure refers to the green, living portion of grass visible above the ground, especially after mowing.
670. What category does Kentucky bluegrass fall into?
a. Cool season grass
b. Warm season grass
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Cool season grass. Kentucky bluegrass (Poa pratensis) is a cool season grass commonly used in lawns and athletic fields in cooler climates.
671. What category does Bahia grass fall into?
a. Cool season grass
b. Warm season grass
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Warmseason grass. Bahia grass (Paspalum notatum) is a warmseason grass known for its tolerance to heat and drought.
672. When is the optimal planting time for turfgrasses?
a. May June
b. July Aug
c. Sep Oct
d. Nov Dec
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)SepOct. The best planting time for turfgrasses is typically during the early fall months of September to October when temperatures are cooler and rainfall is more consistent.
673. What category does Rose fall into?
a. Short day plant
b. Long day plant
c. Day neutral plant
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)None of the above. Roses are not categorized based on day length requirements like short day, long day, or day neutral plants.
674. Which principles must a floral designer consider when designing an asymmetrical floral arrangement?
a. Proportion
b. Balance
c. Focal point
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)All of the above. When designing an asymmetrical floral arrangement, the floral designer must consider proportion, balance, and focal point to create a visually pleasing composition.
675. Which are elements of landscape design?
a. Balance & Emphasis
b. Rhythm & Harmony
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)All of the above. Elements of landscape design include balance, emphasis, rhythm, harmony, and more.
676. Which are principles of landscape design?
a. Colour & Form
b. Texture & Colour
c. All of the above
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)All of the above. Principles of landscape design include consideration of color, form, texture, and other factors to create aesthetically pleasing outdoor spaces.
677. What is the art of shaping plants into geometric shapes known as?
a. Ehabana
b. Bonseia
c. Topiary
d. Potpourri
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Topiary. Topiary is the art of shaping plants, typically shrubs, into geometric or whimsical forms through pruning and training.
678. What is the preferred tool for the first mowing of a newly established lawn?
a. Sickle
b. Mower
c. Scissor
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Mower. The first mowing of a newly established lawn is typically done using a lawn mower to ensure even cutting and promote healthy growth.
679. Which of the following is a common example of a monsoon annual grown in India?
a. Dahlia
b. Zinnia
c. Cock’s comb
d. Pansy
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Zinnia. Zinnia is a common example of a monsoon annual grown in India due to its ability to thrive in the rainy season.
680. What type of plant is Morning glory?
a. Annual
b. Perennial
c. Tree
d. Shrub
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Annual. Morning glory is an annual flowering plant known for its vibrant and colorful trumpet shaped flowers.
681. What is the botanical name of Candytuft?
a. Helipterum roseum
b. Iberis amara
c. Bellis perennis
d. Tropaeolum majus
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Iberis amara. Candytuft is botanically known as Iberis amara and is valued for its clusters of white flowers.
682. What type of plant is Chrysanthemum?
a. Short day plant
b. Long day plant
c. Day neutral plant
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Short day plant. Chrysanthemums are shortday plants, requiring longer nights to initiate flowering.
683. Which annual flower is best used for drying?
a. Gaillardia
b. Nasturtium
c. Helichrysum
d. Balsam
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Helichrysum. Helichrysum is known as the best annual flower for drying, as its papery flowers retain their color and shape when dried.
684. To which family does Iris belong?
a. Violaceae
b. Liliaceae
c. Iridaceae
d. Compositae
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Iridaceae. Iris belongs to the family Iridaceae and is renowned for its striking flowers.
685. How are Hybrid tea roses developed?
a. By crossing Hybrid perpetual & Tea rose
b. By crossing Floribunda & Tea rose
c. By crossing Tea rose & Polyantha rose
d. By crossing Tea rose & Grandiflora rose
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)By crossing Tea rose & Grandiflora rose. Hybrid tea roses are bred by crossing tea roses with grandiflora roses, resulting in large, high centered flowers.
686. Which type of roses flower only once during summer?
a. Floribunda roses
b. Climbing roses
c. Ramblers
d. Miniature roses
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Ramblers. Rambling roses typically flower once during the summer season.
687. What color do Iceberg roses bear?
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Pink
d. White
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)White. Iceberg roses produce clusters of white flowers.
688. To which category does ‘Kardinal’ belong?
a. Floribunda
b. Miniature
c. Hybrid tea
d. Grandiflora
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Hybrid tea. ‘Kardinal’ is a hybrid tea rose variety known for its large, deep red flowers.
689. What is the process of water vapor emission from the surface of plant leaves called?
a. Fixation
b. Photosynthesis
c. Nitrification
d. Transpiration
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Transpiration. Transpiration is the process by which water vapor escapes from the stomata of plant leaves into the atmosphere.
690. What type of plant is Eranthemum?
a. Tree
b. Shrub
c. Creeper
d. Annual
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Shrub. Eranthemum is a type of flowering shrub known for its colorful blooms and foliage.
691. Which of the following is a common example of a fragrant shrub?
a. Chandni
b. Jatropha
c. Kaner
d. Murva
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Kaner. Kaner, or Nerium oleander, is a fragrant shrub known for its showy flowers and sweet scent.
692. What color flowers does Nerium odorum bear?
a. White
b. Pink
c. Red
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)All of the above. Nerium odorum, also known as oleander, bears flowers of various colors including white, pink, and red.
693. What is the optimal daytime temperature range for the best growth of house plants?
a. 612°C
b. 1218°C
c. 1824°C
d. 2430°C
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)1824°C. House plants generally thrive in temperatures ranging from 18 to 24°C during the daytime.
694. When properly watering indoor plants, what factors should be considered?
a. The type of plant
b. The size of the plant
c. Where the plant is growing.
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)All of the above. Proper watering of indoor plants requires considering the type, size, and growing conditions of the plant.
695. What category does Croton belong to?
a. Tree
b. Shrub
c. House plant
d. Annual
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)House plant. Croton is a popular house plant known for its colorful and variegated foliage.
696. Araucaria is classified as which type of plant?
a. Tropical
b. Subtropical
c. Temperate
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)All of the above. Araucaria is a genus of coniferous trees that includes species found in tropical, subtropical, and temperate regions.
697. What is a piece of broken pot used at the base of a pot for drainage called?
a. Crown
b. Cristate
c. Crock
d. Bulbil
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Crock. A crock is a piece of broken pottery or other material placed in the bottom of a container to improve drainage.
698. How is Crocus typically propagated?
a. Bulbs
b. Corms
c. Rhizomes
d. Seeds
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Bulbs. Crocus is commonly propagated by planting bulbs underground, from which new plants will grow.
Which of the following is a type of asexual plant propagation?
A) Seed sowing
B) Grafting
C) Photosynthesis
D) Germination
Answer: B) Grafting
Explanation: Asexual plant propagation involves creating new plants without the use of seeds, ensuring the offspring are genetically identical to the parent plant. Grafting is a common asexual propagation technique where tissues from one plant (the scion) are inserted into those of another (the rootstock) so that the two sets of vascular tissues may join together and grow as one plant.
• Seed sowing is a method of sexual propagation where plants are grown from seeds, resulting in genetic variation among offspring.
• Photosynthesis is a biological process by which plants produce food using sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water.
• Germination is the process by which a seed develops into a new plant, which is part of sexual reproduction.
Horticulture mcq Part 5th
700. What is the term for a leaf of fern or palm?
a. Simple leaf
b. Pinna
c. Frond
d. Compound leaf
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Frond. In ferns and palms, the leaf is called a frond, which typically consists of a blade and may be divided into smaller segments called pinnae.
701. What is the term for a smooth and hairless plant surface?
a. Glaucous
b. Glabrous
c. Gloclind
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Glabrous. Glabrous refers to a plant surface that is smooth and lacking hairs or trichomes.
702. Temporary removal of a plant from its pot in order to check the condition of the root ball is known as:
a. Overpotting
b. Repotting
c. Knocking out
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Knocking out. Knocking out refers to the temporary removal of a plant from its pot to inspect the root ball for health and condition.
703. Milky sap which exudes from cut surfaces of a few house plants is:
a. Honey dew
b. Latex
c. Glochid
d. Heel
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Latex. Latex is the milky sap that exudes from cut surfaces of certain houseplants, such as rubber plants and euphorbias.
704. A plant growth in a pot which is too small to allow proper plant growth is known as:
a. Pot bound
b. Potting on
c. Overpotting
d. Knocking out
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Potbound. Potbound refers to a plant that has outgrown its current pot and has roots tightly packed within the container, hindering further growth.
705. Small bulb produced on the stem of bulbous plants is known as:
a. Bulblet
b. Bulbil
c. A & B both
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)A & B both. Both bulblet and bulbil refer to small bulbs produced on the stem of bulbous plants as a means of vegetative reproduction.
706. A small offset produced at the base of a corm is:
a. Cormel
b. Cormlet
c. A & B both
d. None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)A & B both. Both cormel and cormlet refer to small offsets produced at the base of a corm for propagation.
708. Narcissus has a cuplike center in its flowers, known as:
a. Corolla
b. Cross
c. Crock
d. Corona
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Corona. The cuplike center in narcissus flowers is called the corona, which is a distinctive feature of the flower’s anatomy.
709. A feathered petal which bears a distinct central band is:
a. Flamed
b. Flaked
c. Floret
d. Filament
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Flamed. A flamed petal refers to a petal with a distinct central band or stripe, resembling the flickering flame of a candle.
710. What is the tip of the bulb called?
a. Node
b. Month
c. Nose
d. Hirsute
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Nose. The tip of the bulb, where growth originates, is called the nose.
711. The stalk of an inflorescence is known as:
a. Pedicel
b. Peduncle
c. Perianth
d. Petiole
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Peduncle. The peduncle is the stalk of an inflorescence, supporting the entire flower cluster.
712. A whorl of leaves arising at the base of plants is:
a. Scales
b. Reflexed
c. Rosette
d. None of these
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Rosette. A rosette is a circular arrangement of leaves arising at the base of a plant, often seen in plants like dandelions or lettuce.
713. A fleshy spike in which small flowers are embedded is:
a. Spathe
b. Spadix
c. Spike
d. Peduncle
Explanation: The correct answer is (b)Spadix. A spadix is a fleshy spike bearing small, densely packed flowers, often enclosed by a colorful bract called a spathe.
714. What is a common shrub used as a hedge in India?
a. Duranta
b. Motia
c. Chandna
d. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Duranta. Duranta is a common shrub used as a hedge in India for its dense foliage and ornamental appeal.
715. What is a flowerhead or tightly packed inflorescence called?
a. Trumpet
b. Tepal
c. Truss
d. Tunic
Explanation: The correct answer is (c)Truss. A truss is a flowerhead or tightly packed inflorescence, commonly seen in plants like rhododendrons and azaleas.
716. What is the dry and often papery covering of corms & some bulbs called?
a. Trumpet
b. Plunging
c. Fall
d. Tunic
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Tunic. The tunic is the dry and often papery covering of corms and some bulbs, providing protection to the underground storage organ.
717. What instrument measures the electrical conductivity of a soil solution?
a. Manometer
b. Tensiometer
c. Photometer
d. Solu bridge
Explanation: The correct answer is (d)Solubridge. A Solu bridge is an instrument used to measure the electrical conductivity of a soil solution, providing insights into soil fertility and nutrient levels.
718. During which season is a rose severely pruned?
a. Spring (Feb Mar)
b. Autumn (Sep Oct)
c. Winter (Dec Jan)
d. Summer (May June)
Explanation: The correct answer is (a)Spring (FebMar). Roses are typically severely pruned during the spring season to encourage new growth and flowering.
719. Rose hips are a rich source of which vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Vitamin C
Explanation: Rose hips are particularly high in vitamin C, making them a valuable source of this nutrient. While they may contain other vitamins as well, vitamin C is the most notable.
720. Balled and bur lapped evergreens may be moved at any time of year except when:
a. New shoots are growing
b. They are dormant
c. The soil is frozen
d. The soil is too wet
Answer: c. The soil is frozen
Explanation: Balled and burlapped evergreens can be transplanted at any time of the year except when the soil is frozen, as this makes it difficult to dig and plant them properly.
721. Which of the following are not annual plants?
a. Asparagus
b. Petunia
c. Marigold
d. Geranium
Answer: a. Asparagus
Explanation: Asparagus is a perennial plant, meaning it lives for more than two years, unlike annual plants which complete their life cycle in one growing season.
722. Which of the following annuals are best used for edging?
a. Poppy
b. Stock
c. Sweet alyssum
d. Sunflower
Answer: c. Sweet alyssum
Explanation: Sweet alyssum is commonly used for edging due to its low growing and spreading habit, which creates a neat border in garden beds.
723. Which of the following are good choices as specimen plants in a landscape?
a. Magnolia
b. Alstonia
c. Gold mohr
d. Bougainvillea
Answer: a. Magnolia
Explanation: Magnolia is often chosen as a specimen plant in landscapes due to its large, showy flowers and attractive foliage, making it a focal point in the garden.
724. The most common mistake in mowing cool season grasses is to:
a. Mow them too short
b. Mow too often
c. Use a dull mower blade
d. Mow them too high
Answer: a. Mow them too short
Explanation: Mowing cool season grasses too short can stress the grass and make it more susceptible to diseases, pests, and drought. It’s generally recommended to mow cool season grasses at a height of 2.5 to 3.5 inches to maintain their health and vigor.
725. Who developed the binomial system for naming plants?
a. Socrates
b. Hortus
c. Linneus
d. Plato
Answer: c. Linneus
Explanation: Carl Linnaeus developed the binomial system, assigning each plant a two part Latinized name.
726. What does the term “deciduous” mean when describing a plant?
a. The plant is perennial
b. The plant sheds its leaves each year
c. The plant is a shrub
d. All of the above
Answer: b. The plant sheds its leaves each year
Explanation: Deciduous plants shed their leaves annually in response to seasonal changes.
727. Which flowers are grown from bulbs?
a. Zinnia
b. All of the above
c. Tulip
d. Marigolds
Answer: c. Tulip
Explanation: Flowers grown from bulbs include tulips, daffodils, and lilies.
728. What does xeriscaping focus on in landscaping?
a. Arid landscaping
b. Water conservation
c. No water in the landscape
d. Draining water from landscape area
Answer: b. Water conservation
Explanation: Xeriscaping aims to conserve water through drought tolerant plants and efficient irrigation.
729. By what percentage can mulching reduce water loss?
a. 35%
b. 50%
c. 90%
d. 25%
Answer: c. 90%
Explanation: Mulching can reduce water loss by up to 90% by preventing evaporation.
730. Which plant can be effectively used as a windbreak?
a. Moulsary
b. All of the above
c. Ulta Ashok
d. Bottlebrush
Answer: d. Bottlebrush
Explanation: Bottlebrush plants are commonly used as windbreaks due to their dense foliage.
731. What does sprigging involve?
a. Chopping up a lawn to provide better drainage
b. Cutting grass to keep it short
c. Planting individual plants, runners, or stolons to establish a lawn
d. Sowing a lawn
Answer: c. Planting individual plants, runners, or stolons to establish a lawn
Explanation: Sprigging is planting grass runners or stolons to establish a lawn.
732. To what depth should grass seed be covered with soil?
a. 1.5 cm
b. 1 cm
c. 2.5 cm
d. 0.5 cm
Answer: b. 1 cm
Explanation: Grass seed should be lightly covered with soil to a depth of approximately 1 cm.
733. What is the best way to control weeds in a lawn?
a. A combination of preemergence and postemergence weed killer
b. A good healthy thick turf
c. A weed killer/fertilizer
d. None of the above
Answer: b. A good healthy thick turf
Explanation: A healthy lawn can naturally suppress weed growth.
734. Why might rolling the lawn each year be necessary?
a. Level the lawn
b. Push grass roots into close contact with soil
c. Provide a firm surface for mowing
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Rolling the lawn can level it, promote root contact with soil, and provide a firm mowing surface.
735. What is the common name for Diffenbachia?
a. Umbrella tree
b. Bougainvillea
c. Snake plant
d. Dumb cane
Answer: d. Dumb cane
Explanation: The common name for Diffenbachia is Dumb cane due to the toxic sap that can cause temporary speechlessness if ingested.
736. Which of the following is the genus name for croton?
a. Sanservieria
b. Ficus
c. Codiaeium
d. Araucaria
Answer: c. Codiaeium
Explanation: Croton belongs to the genus Codiaeium.
737. What happens to indoor plants when they are overwatered?
a. They drop their leaves
b. They die
c. Their leaves turn yellow
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Overwatering indoor plants can lead to various symptoms such as leaf dropping, yellowing of leaves, and eventually plant death.
738. What should be the night temperature of indoor plants compared to the daytime temperature?
a. 510ºF cooler
b. 34ºF cooler
c. 2030ºF cooler
d. 1015ºF cooler
Answer: d. 1015ºF cooler
Explanation: The night temperature of indoor plants should ideally be 1015ºF cooler than the daytime temperature to mimic their natural environment.
739. Why is charcoal used in a terrarium?
a. For its color
b. As drainage material
c. For its drainage ability
d. None of the above
Answer: c. For its drainage ability
Explanation: Charcoal is used in terrariums primarily for its ability to aid in drainage by absorbing excess moisture and preventing waterlogging of the soil.
740. What does the use of high nitrogen fertilizers in terrarium soil result in?
a. Moisture
b. Ammonia gas
c. New plants
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Ammonia gas
Explanation: High nitrogen fertilizers in terrarium soil can result in the release of excess ammonia gas, which can be harmful to the plants and the enclosed environment.
741. What is the phenomenon where plants tend to grow towards light sources called?
a. Photosynthesis
b. The rain cycle
c. Transpiration
d. Phototropism
Answer: d. Phototropism
Explanation: Phototropism is the growth movement of plants in response to light, where they tend to grow towards light sources to maximize photosynthesis.
742. Through what structures do plants lose moisture?
a. Air holes
b. Stems
c. Stomata
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Stomata
Explanation: Stomata are small pores on the underside of leaves through which water vapor and gases are exchanged between the plant and the atmosphere.
743. Why is the larger, centermost part of plants used in bonsai cut off?
a. To dwarf the plant
b. To cause root branching
c. To make the root system shallow
d. To simplify the root pruning job
Answer: b. To cause root branching
Explanation: Removing the larger, centermost part of a bonsai plant encourages root branching and distribution within the confined space of the bonsai container.
744. What is the term for the site of attraction that holds the attention of the viewer in a landscape?
a. Balance
b. Proportion
c. Focal point
d. Rhythm
Answer: c. Focal point
Explanation: The focal point is a specific area or feature in a landscape that is designed to draw attention and create visual interest.
745. Which plant is the most famous fragrant plant in summer?
a. Jasminum sambac
b. Althaea rosea
c. Tabernamontana divaricata
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Tabernamontana divaricata
Explanation: Taberna Montana divaricata, commonly known as the “crepe jasmine” or “pinwheel flower,” is renowned for its fragrance during the summer months.
746. Pansy is very popular winter annual for its:
a. Stem and foliage beauty
b. Planting under shade
c. Hardiness towards ground cover
d. Mixed colored flower bedding plant
Answer: d. Mixed colored flower bedding plant
Explanation: Pansies are popular winter annuals known for their vibrant and mixed colored flowers, making them ideal for bedding displays and adding color to winter gardens.
747. The use of a pipe covered by a rope for providing support to some indoor plants like Scindapsus, is termed as:
a. Terrarium
b. Totem
c. Topiary
d. None of the above
Answer: b. Totem
Explanation: Using a pipe covered by a rope to provide support to indoor plants like Scindapsus is called “totem” or “plant totem.” It helps these plants to climb and grow vertically.
748. An open framework designed to offer a shady resting place is called:
a. Cold frame
b. Arbor
c. Pergola
d. Deck
Answer: c. Pergola
Explanation: A pergola is an open framework structure typically made of wood or metal, designed to provide shade and support climbing plants. It often serves as a decorative element in gardens and outdoor spaces.
749. A line of demarcation that creates visual interest in a landscape by separating one segment from another is called:
a. Edging
b. Border
c. Fencing
d. Line
Answer: a. Edging
Explanation: Edging refers to a line or border that separates different segments of a landscape, such as between a lawn and a flower bed. It helps define and enhance the visual appeal of various areas within the landscape.
750. In landscape, the shape of a tree is called:
a. Shape
b. Form
c. Structure
d. Texture
Answer: b. Form
Explanation: In landscaping, the term “form” refers to the overall shape and structure of a tree, including its silhouette and branching pattern.
751. Water gardening is also called:
a. Equascape
b. Hardscape
c. Nightscape
d. Alpine gardening
Answer: a. Aquascape
Explanation: Water gardening, which involves growing aquatic plants and ornamental fish in water features like ponds or water gardens, is also known as aquascaping or aquascape.
752. A landscape in which rocks and grasses are used instead of flowers is called:
a. Rock gardening
b. Japanese gardening
c. Water gardening
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Rock gardening
Explanation: Rock gardening involves the use of rocks, gravel, and drought tolerant plants like grasses and succulents to create visually appealing landscapes, especially in rocky or arid environments.
753. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Verbena is used as a climber
b. Verbena is used for border
c. Verbena is used as a hedge plant
d. Verbena is used as a bedding plant
Answer: d. Verbena is used as a bedding plant
Explanation: Verbena is commonly used as a bedding plant, often planted in flower beds or containers to add color and texture to garden landscapes.
754. Which plant is used for its foliage beauty?
a. Kochia
b. Phlox
c. Portulaca
d. Antirrhinum
Answer: a. Kochia
Explanation: Kochia is known for its striking foliage, especially during the fall when its leaves turn vibrant shades of red and pink, making it a popular choice for ornamental purposes.
755. Which annual flower is used as ground cover?
a. Viola
b. Stock
c. Calendula
d. Mesembryanthemum
Answer: d. Mesembryanthemum
Explanation: Mesembryanthemum, also known as ice plant or Livingstone daisy, is often used as ground cover due to its ability to spread and form a dense mat of colorful flowers.
756. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Lawns should always be mowed in the same direction
b. Plants are best wintered without water in them
c. Cylinder mowers give thorough mowing because of an air vacuum system
d. Warm season grasses usually respond better to close mowing
Answer: d. Warm season grasses usually respond better to close mowing
Explanation: Warm season grasses, such as Bermuda grass and zoysia grass, typically respond better to close mowing, which encourages lateral growth and helps maintain a dense turf.
758. Which of the following plants requires very light pruning?
a. Nerium Odorum
b. Rhododendron
c. Lawsonia alba
d. Punica grantum
Answer: a. Nerium Odorum
Explanation: Nerium Odorum, commonly known as Oleander, requires minimal pruning due to its toxicity and ability to regenerate rapidly from pruning.
759. Which tree bears fragrant flowers?
a. Albezia lebbeck
b. Pinus roxburghii
c. Papulus elegni
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Albezia lebbeck
Explanation: Albezia lebbeck, also known as Siris or Indian Siris, produces fragrant flowers, making it a sought after tree for ornamental purposes.
760. Which creeper bears white flowers?
a. Ipomea
b. Plumbago
c. Clerodendron
d. Tecoma
Answer: b. Plumbago
Explanation: Plumbago is a creeper that produces white flowers, adding charm to garden landscapes with its elegant blooms.
761. Pinus roxburghii is most healthy when grown in:
a. Tropical zone
b. Subtropical zone
c. All of the above zones
d. None of the above zones
Answer: b. Subtropical zone
Explanation: Pinus roxburghii, or Chir Pine, thrives best in subtropical zones where it can enjoy welldrained soils and moderate climates.
762. A lowlying plant that covers some area in the landscape is called:
a. Shrub
b. Ground cover
c. Bedding plant
d. Perennial
Answer: b. Ground cover
Explanation: Ground cover plants are lowgrowing species that spread over the ground, providing soil coverage and erosion control while enhancing the landscape’s aesthetics.
763. Plants that shed their leaves in autumn are known as:
a. Evergreen
b. Annuals
c. Deciduous
d. Biennials
Answer: c. Deciduous
Explanation: Deciduous plants shed their leaves seasonally, usually in autumn, as part of their natural growth cycle, in contrast to evergreen plants, which retain their foliage year round.
764. ___________ is a common disease found on roses grown for cut flowers.
a. Stem rot
b. Rust
c. Root rot
d. Botrytis
Answer: d. Botrytis
Explanation: Botrytis, also known as gray mold, is a prevalent disease affecting roses cultivated for cut flowers, leading to the development of fuzzy grayish brown mold on flowers and foliage.
765. Plants suitable for the marginal areas of a pond are called:
a. Bog plants
b. Emergent
c. Aquatic plants
d. Floaters
Answer: a. Bog plants
Explanation: Bog plants are those adapted to grow in the marginal zones of ponds, thriving in moist soil conditions but not fully submerged in water.
766. A contained water feature type is:
a. Fountain
b. Waterfall
c. Pond
d. None of the above
Answer: a. Fountain
Explanation: A fountain represents a contained water feature commonly used in landscaping, typically featuring a decorative structure with water flowing or spraying from it.
767. _____________ is a path type used for daily movement in the landscape.
a. Functional path
b. Temporary path
c. Occasional path
d. Decorative path
Answer: a. Functional path
Explanation: A functional path serves as a walkway for daily movement within the landscape, providing access to various areas such as gardens, seating spaces, or entrances.
768. What is the term for when all the parts of a design suggest a single impression?
a. Harmony
b. Transition
c. Balance
d. Unity
Answer: d. Unity
Explanation: Unity in design refers to the cohesive relationship among various elements, where they work together to convey a singular impression or theme.
769. During which season is pruning of roses typically managed in Punjab?
a. Summer
b. Winter
c. Spring
d. Yearround
Answer: c. Spring
Explanation: Pruning roses in spring allows for the removal of dead or damaged wood and encourages healthy growth and flowering during the growing season.
770. Which type of roses bear clustered flowers?
a. Hybrid tea
b. Floribunda
c. Miniature
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Floribunda
Explanation: Floribunda roses are known for bearing clusters of flowers on each stem, making them popular choices for colorful garden displays.
771. If the new growth of a Dieffenbachia is weak and spindly with large gaps between the leaves, what is the likely problem?
a. Salt damage
b. Nitrogen deficiency
c. Botrytis
d. Lack of light
Answer: d. Lack of light
Explanation: Weak, spindly growth with large gaps between leaves is often a sign of insufficient light, as Dieffenbachia plants require moderate to bright indirect light for optimal growth.
772. Why are cuttings of potted chrysanthemums planted at an angle?
a. Increased branching
b. larger blooms
c. A more rounded plant
d. Earlier flowering
Answer: a. Increased branching
Explanation: Planting chrysanthemum cuttings at an angle encourages increased branching, resulting in fuller, bushier plants with more flower buds.
773. What is the common name for Zebrina pendula?
a. African Lily
b. Boston ivy
c. Wandering Jew
d. Grape ivy
Answer: c. Wandering Jew
Explanation: Zebrina pendula is commonly known as Wandering Jew, a popular trailing plant valued for its colorful foliage.
774. Which of the following flower types is not suitable for pressing?
a. Daffodil
b. Dusty miller
c. Pansy
d. African violet
Answer: d. African violet
Explanation: African violets have soft, fleshy stems and delicate flowers, making them unsuitable for pressing, which can damage their structure.
775. What is the most important environmental factor regulating flower initiation in bulbous species?
a. Light
b. Temperature
c. Moisture
d. Ventilation
Answer: b. Temperature
Explanation: Temperature plays a crucial role in regulating flower initiation in bulbous species, influencing the timing and quality of flowering.
776. Why is plant propagation important?
a. Selected plants chosen to maintain their traits
b. Usefulness
c. For specific traits
d. Preserving plant products as a source of food
Answer: a. Selected plants chosen to maintain their traits
Explanation: Plant propagation allows for the reproduction of selected plants to maintain desirable traits, such as flower color, growth habit, or disease resistance.
777. What does successful plant propagation involve?
a. Knowledge of technical skills
b. Knowledge of plant biology
c. Knowledge of plant
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Explanation: Successful plant propagation requires a combination of technical skills, understanding of plant biology, and knowledge of specific plant species and their propagation methods.
778. What is any detached plant part that, under favorable conditions, will produce a new plant identical to the parent plant called?
a. Cutting
b. Seed
c. Plug
d. Graft
Answer: a. Cutting
Explanation: A cutting is a detached plant part, such as a stem or leaf, that, when provided with appropriate conditions like soil and moisture, can develop into a new plant identical to the parent plant.
789. What is the recommended angle for taking a cutting from the stock plant?
a. 25degrees
b. 45degrees
c. 60degrees
d. 90degrees
Explanation: The angle at which a cutting is taken affects its ability to root effectively. Choosing the correct angle ensures optimal surface area exposure for root development while minimizing moisture loss.
790. How many nodes should ideally be under the rooting medium when sticking a hardwood cutting?
a. At least 1
b. 1 to 3
c. 2 to 4
d. 3 to 5
Explanation: Having an appropriate number of nodes under the rooting medium provides ample opportunity for root initiation, promoting successful establishment and growth of the cutting.
791. What is the primary purpose of applying rooting hormones to cuttings?
a. To increase the plant’s ability to reproduce.
b. To promote the production of a new root system.
c. To help the cutting resist disease.
d. To promote the production of healthy leaves, flowers, and berries.
Explanation: Rooting hormones stimulate root development in cuttings, enhancing their ability to establish roots and grow into healthy plants, thereby improving propagation success rates.
792. Why is it necessary to create a hole or furrow in the growing media before sticking the cutting?
a. To prevent the rooting hormone from getting knocked off the end of the cutting.
b. To facilitate the process of sticking the cutting.
c. To establish the appropriate planting depth for the cutting.
d. To ensure adequate air circulation around the cutting’s base.
Explanation: Making a hole or furrow in the growing media allows for proper placement of the cutting, ensuring it is inserted to the correct depth and securely anchored in the medium for successful rooting.
793. What is the recommended duration for immersing a cutting in a liquid IBA rooting hormone?
a. 2 seconds
b. 5 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 12 seconds
Explanation: The duration of immersion in rooting hormone solution influences the absorption of the hormone by the cutting, with an optimal duration ensuring effective stimulation of root growth without excessive hormone exposure.
794. How deep should cuttings typically be inserted into the rooting media?
a. ½ to 3 inches
b. ¾ to 2 inches
c. 1 to 2 inches
d. 1 ½ to 3 inches
Explanation: Inserting cuttings to the appropriate depth in the rooting media ensures sufficient contact between the cutting and the medium, facilitating root initiation and subsequent development.
795. Why is firming the soil around the base of the cutting important?
a. To eliminate air pockets.
b. To ensure good contact between the cutting and the rooting media.
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Explanation: Firming the soil around the base of the cutting helps to eliminate air pockets and ensure proper contact with the rooting medium, promoting effective water and nutrient uptake essential for root growth.
796. What is the significance of evenly spacing cuttings in the rooting medium?
a. To promote good air circulation.
b. To minimize the spread of disease organisms.
c. To optimize the utilization of propagation space.
d. All of the above.
Explanation: Even spacing of cuttings allows for adequate air circulation, reduces the risk of disease transmission, and maximizes the efficient use of available space, contributing to successful rooting and propagation.
797. Which part of the cutting should be coated with rooting hormone?
a. A portion including at least two nodes.
b. The bottom ¼ inch.
c. The portion of the stem to be submerged in the medium.
d. The entire cutting.
Explanation: Applying rooting hormone to the appropriate portion of the cutting enhances the chances of successful root initiation and development, improving overall propagation success rates.
798. What is the final step in preparing cuttings for propagation?
a. Preparing the rooting media.
b. Selecting quality cutting stock.
c. Applying rooting hormone.
d. Watering and placing the cuttings on a mist bed.
Explanation: After preparing the cuttings, the final step involves providing the necessary moisture and environmental conditions for root development, typically by watering and placing the cuttings in a suitable propagation environment.
799. Why should any leftover rooting hormone be discarded after use?
a. To prevent contamination of the entire supply.
b. To conserve funds.
c. To support the supplier.
d. To maintain cleanliness.
Explanation: Disposing of excess rooting hormone helps prevent potential contamination of the remaining supply, ensuring its effectiveness for future use and maintaining hygiene standards in propagation practices.
800. Why does a propagator trim the leaves of large leaved cuttings?
a. To eliminate unsightly insect damage.
b. To conserve propagation space.
c. To shape the leaves into topiaries.
d. To achieve a uniform leaf size and shape.
Explanation: Trimming the leaves of large leaved cuttings helps to reduce moisture loss and conserve space, facilitating successful rooting and propagation.
801. Which type of cutting does not become woody?
a. Softwood
b. Semi hardwood
c. Hardwood
d. Herbaceous
Explanation: Herbaceous cuttings do not develop woody tissue, making them suitable for propagating plants with softer stems and nonwoody growth.
802. What is sodium hypochlorite used for in propagation?
a. To eliminate unsightly insect damage.
b. To conserve moisture.
c. To enhance rooting.
d. To sterilize cutting tools.
Explanation: Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used as a disinfectant to sterilize cutting tools and propagation equipment, minimizing the risk of disease transmission during propagation.
803. What causes secondary dormancy in seeds?
a. Immature Embryo
b. Chemical Inhibitors
c. Light Requirement
d. Hard seededness
Explanation: Secondary dormancy in seeds may result from chemical inhibitors present in the seed coat or surrounding tissues, which prevent germination until specific conditions are met.
804. Which type of cutting is most often used in fruit plants?
a. Herbaceous Cutting
b. Leafy cutting
c. Semi hardwood cutting
d. None
Explanation: Semi hardwood cuttings are commonly used in fruit plant propagation due to their suitability for a wide range of fruit species and their ability to root effectively.
805. Which fertilizer contains 46% nitrogen?
a. Urea
b. Ammonium sulphate
c. Potassium nitrate
d. Single super phosphate
Explanation: Urea fertilizer typically contains 46% nitrogen, making it a high nitrogen fertilizer commonly used to promote vegetative growth in plants.
806. Red top is a variety of which plant?
a. Tomato
b. Potato
c. Apple
d. Guava
Explanation: Red top is a variety of potato known for its red skinned tubers and is commonly cultivated for its culinary uses.
807. What is the cause of alternate bearing in mangoes?
a. Environmental factors
b. Physiological factors
c. Genetic factors
d. All of these
Explanation: Alternate bearing in mangoes can be attributed to a combination of environmental, physiological, and genetic factors, leading to fluctuations in fruit production from year to year.
808. What characterizes windproof shelterbelts?
a. Very dense
b. Medium dense
c. Porous
d. None of these
Explanation: Windproof shelterbelts are typically porous, allowing some air movement while still providing protection from strong winds, thereby minimizing damage to crops and structures.
809. How do plants control direct sunlight and intercept glare?
a. Obstruction
b. Absorption
c. Reflection
d. Radiation
Explanation: Plants control direct sunlight and intercept glare primarily through obstruction, by blocking or shading sunlight with their foliage or structures.
810. At what temperature can roses be successfully cultivated?
a. 40°C
b. 21°C
c. 30°C
d. 10°C
Explanation: Roses can be successfully cultivated at temperatures around 21°C, providing optimal conditions for growth, flowering, and overall health.
811. Tulip is an example of:
a. Rhizome
b. Bulb
c. Tuber
d. Corm
Explanation: Tulips are bulbs, which are underground storage organs containing the plant’s nutrients and energy for growth and flowering.
812. Ground cover includes which types of plants?
a. Annuals
b. Biennials
c. Perennials
d. All of these
Explanation: Ground cover plants can consist of annuals, biennials, and perennials, depending on the species chosen and the specific requirements of the planting area.
813. Which of these shrubs produce fragrant flowers?
a. Cestrum nocturnum
b. Cestrum diurnum
c. Murraya paniculata
d. All of these
Explanation: All the mentioned shrubs—Cestrum nocturnum, Cestrum diurnum, and Murraya paniculata—produce fragrant flowers, adding sensory appeal to gardens and landscapes.
814. What are the danger signs of too little water?
a. Leaves rapidly become wilted and limp.
b. Leaf growth slows.
c. Lower leaves become curled or yellow in color.
d. All of these
Explanation: Insufficient water supply can lead to rapid wilting and limpness of leaves, slowed leaf growth, and curling or yellowing of lower leaves, indicating that plants require watering.
815. For potting plants, the pH should be _____.
a. 56
b. 67
c. 45
d. None of these
Explanation: The pH for potting plants should ideally fall within the range of 67, providing an optimal acidity level for nutrient uptake and overall plant health.
816. Double delight is a variety of rose that belongs to which group?
a. Hybrid Tea
b. Floribunda
c. Miniature
d. None of these
Explanation: Double Delight is a Hybrid Tea rose variety, known for its large, fragrant blooms and distinctive red and white coloration.
817. Chrysanthemums are propagated through:
a. Seeds
b. Suckers
c. Cuttings
d. All of these
Explanation: Chrysanthemums can be propagated through seeds, suckers, and cuttings, providing multiple methods for increasing their numbers in cultivation.
818. Which of the following annuals is used in rock gardening?
a. Cosmos
b. Clarkia
c. Dianthus
d. Morning glory
Explanation: Dianthus is commonly utilized in rock gardens due to its compact growth habit, colorful flowers, and ability to thrive in rocky or challenging soil conditions.
819. Which of the following annuals is used as ground cover?
a. Musemberanthemum
b. Stock
c. Viola
d. Calendula
Explanation: Viola is often employed as a ground cover due to its low growing nature, spreading habit, and ability to produce a carpet of colorful flowers, enhancing garden aesthetics.
820. Which of these annuals has a long season of bloom?
a. Statice
b. Sweet peas
c. Portulaca
d. All of these
Explanation: Portulaca is renowned for its extended blooming period, continuously producing vibrant flowers throughout the summer months, particularly in hot and arid conditions.
821. Which of these are temporary visitors in garden plantations?
a. Perennials
b. Shrubs
c. Annuals
d. Succulents
Explanation: Annuals are considered temporary visitors in garden plantations as they complete their life cycle within one growing season, germinating from seed, flowering, setting seed, and then dying, typically within a year.
822. In the summer, how much cooler are daytime temperatures typically in forests compared to open areas?
a. 2°C
b. 10°C
c. 15°C
d. None of these
Explanation: Forests often maintain cooler temperatures during summer days due to the shade provided by the canopy, which reduces direct exposure to sunlight and heat.
823. Where can physiotherapy in floriculture be practiced?
a. Old houses
b. Jails
c. Hospitals
d. All of these
Explanation: Physiotherapy in floriculture can be practiced in various settings, including old houses, jails, and hospitals, where plants are utilized for therapeutic purposes.
824. Which gardening type is Lotus famous for?
a. Home gardening
b. Rock gardening
c. Water gardening
d. None of these
Explanation: Lotus is renowned for its association with water gardening, as it is commonly cultivated in ponds and water features for its stunning flowers and symbolic significance.
825. What type of plants are preferred for foundation plantings?
a. Deciduous
b. Annual
c. Evergreen
d. Ground covers
Explanation: Foundation plantings, which are landscaping plants placed around the base of a building, are often best suited with evergreen plants to provide year round foliage and visual interest.
826. Which element creates the overall effect of various features, styles, and color schemes in the total scene?
a. Harmony
b. Proportion
c. Contrast
d. Accent
Explanation: Harmony refers to the coherence and unity in a landscape design, bringing together different elements such as features, styles, and colors to create a pleasing and cohesive whole.
827. Regarding chromosome number, what is true?
a. Chromosome numbers will vary within a species.
b. The same species will always have the same number of chromosomes.
c. Every species has a different number of chromosomes.
d. Chromosome numbers will vary within cultivars.
Explanation: Chromosome number can vary within a species due to genetic variation, but the same species typically maintains a relatively consistent number of chromosomes.
828. Which characteristics are associated with prophase?
a. Crossing over occurs
b. A well defined nucleus bounded by a nuclear envelope
c. Nucleoli disappear
d. Spindle formation
Explanation: Prophase is characterized by the disappearance of nucleoli, breakdown of the nuclear envelope, and the formation of the spindle apparatus, although crossing over occurs during meiosis, not mitosis.
829. What substance is used for the fusion of protoplasts?
a. Polyethylene glycol
b. Glycerol
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Agar
Explanation: Protoplast fusion, a technique used in plant biotechnology, is typically achieved using substances like polyethylene glycol to facilitate the fusion of protoplast membranes and the creation of hybrid cells.
830. What defines a clone?
a. Cells having different shapes
b. Cells having similar shape
c. Cells having similar genetic constitution
d. Cells having similar size
Explanation: A clone refers to a group of cells or organisms that are genetically identical and derived from a single ancestor, possessing the same genetic constitution.
831. Which phase is the longest in mitotic division?
a. Prophase
b. Interphase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
Explanation: Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle, encompassing the period between cell divisions where the cell prepares for division by replicating its DNA and performing various metabolic activities.
832. What is the ploidy level of the seedless watermelon, Citrullus lanatus?
a. Tetraploid
b. Triploid
c. Diploid
d. Pentaploid
Explanation: The seedless watermelon, Citrullus lanatus, is typically triploid, meaning it contains three sets of chromosomes, resulting in seedless fruits due to incomplete seed development.
833. What type of flowers do mango trees bear?
a. Staminate
b. Hermaphrodite
c. Pistillate
d. Both of the above
Explanation: Mango trees can bear staminate (male), pistillate (female), or hermaphrodite (containing both male and female reproductive parts) flowers.
834. From which region did the cultivated tomato originate from wild forms?
a. Africa
b. South America
c. South Asia
d. America
Explanation: The cultivated tomato originated from wild forms primarily found in South America, particularly in regions of Peru and Ecuador.
835. Is polyembryony in citrus an obstacle in cultivar improvement but useful in rootstock propagation?
a. True
b. False
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: Polyembryony in citrus can be a challenge in cultivar improvement due to the variability it introduces, but it is advantageous in rootstock propagation as it ensures genetic uniformity.
836. What are species called that produce seeds from vegetative cells and not through sexual means?
a. Hybrid
b. Apomictic
c. Zygotic
d. Inbred
Explanation: Species that produce seeds from vegetative cells without fertilization are termed apomictic, ensuring genetic uniformity in offspring.
837. What type of plants does the Cucurbitaceae family have based on the sex of flowers?
a. Hermaphrodite
b. Dioecious
c. Monoecious
d. None of the above
Explanation: The Cucurbitaceae family includes plants with monoecious flowers, which have separate male and female flowers on the same plant.
838. Who is the breeder of the famous Kinnow mandarin?
a. H.B. Frost
b. J.W. Grosser
c. R.K. Soost
d. F.G. Gmitter
Explanation: The famous Kinnow mandarin was bred by Dr. H.B. Frost, a renowned citrus breeder.
839. What type of seeds do mango varieties grown in India generally produce?
a. Monoembryonic
b. Polyembryonic
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Explanation: Mango varieties grown in India generally produce mono embryonic seeds, containing a single embryo per seed.
840. What are the parents of the Kinnow hybrid, bred in the USA?
a. King and sour orange
b. Kara and wilking
c. King and willow leaf
d. Willow leaf and sour orange
Explanation: The Kinnow hybrid, bred in the USA, has parents King and Willow leaf, resulting in its unique characteristics.
841. What is the problem called when increased genetic diversity occurs following extended time in tissue culture?
a. Gene alteration
b. Soma clonal variation
c. Culture shock
d. Epigenetic variation
Explanation: The problem of increased genetic diversity following extended time in tissue culture is known as somaclonal variation, which can lead to unpredictable changes in plant traits.
842. What is a mass of dividing, undifferentiated cells in tissue culture called?
a. A callus
b. An embryoid
c. A plasmodium
d. Protoplasm
Explanation: A mass of dividing, undifferentiated cells in tissue culture is called a callus, which can be induced from plant tissues under appropriate conditions.
843. Electroporation is a technique used with:
a. Calluses
b. Protoplasts
c. Cell suspensions
d. Embryoids
Explanation: Electroporation is a technique commonly used with protoplasts to introduce DNA or other molecules into the cells by applying an electric field.
844. To produce plants that are homozygous for all traits, the best choice is:
a. Callus culture
b. Anther/pollen culture
c. Protoplast culture
d. Embryo culture
Explanation: Anther/pollen culture is the best choice for producing plants that are homozygous for all traits because it directly involves the gametic tissue, ensuring genetic uniformity.
845. What do cell suspension cultures require?
a. Organogenesis
b. Differentiation
c. Disaggregation
d. Dedifferentiation
Explanation: Cell suspension cultures require dedifferentiation, which allows differentiated cells to revert to a less specialized state and proliferate in a liquid medium.
846. If you want to use a plant tissue culture as a chemical factory for vitamins, what should you choose?
a. Suspension cultures
b. Anther/pollen cultures
c. Protoplast cultures
d. None of the above
Explanation: Suspension cultures are the suitable choice if you want to use plant tissue culture as a chemical factory for vitamins because they offer a high surface area for nutrient uptake and metabolic processes.
847. What is the fastest way to a ripe tomato using tissue culture?
a. Anther/pollen culture
b. Plant organ culture
c. Callus culture
d. None of the above
Explanation: Anther/pollen culture is the fastest way to a ripe tomato using tissue culture because it involves the reproductive tissues of the plant, expediting the process of fruit formation.
848. For aseptic cultures in tissue culture, which equipment is not necessary?
a. pH meter
b. Laminar hood cabinet
c. Autoclave
d. All of the above
Explanation: The pH meter is not necessary for aseptic cultures in tissue culture, as it measures the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, which is not directly related to maintaining sterile conditions.
849. What is the term for flower opening?
a. Emasculation
b. Anthesis
c. Dehiscence
d. Fecundation
Explanation: Flower opening is termed as anthesis, marking the period when the flower reaches full bloom and is reproductively functional.
850. What are the four main parts of a flower?
a. Pollen, ovary, pistil, and stamen
b. Sepal, pistil, ovary, and stigma
c. Sepal, petal, stamen, and pistil
d. All of the above
Explanation: The four main parts of a flower are sepals, petals, stamens, and pistils, collectively responsible for reproduction and protection.
851. What does pollination start in the process of fertilization?
a. Growth of pollen tube
b. Seed formation
c. Production of a fruit or seed coat
d. All of the above
Explanation: Pollination initiates the process of fertilization and subsequent seed formation, which leads to the production of a fruit or seed coat.
852. What is the floral biology of watermelon?
a. Monoecious & crosspollinated
b. Dioecious & crosspollinated
c. Dioecious & self pollinated
d. None of the above
Explanation: Watermelon is a monoecious plant, meaning it has separate male and female flowers on the same plant, and it is crosspollinated.
853. What is a plant composed of two or more genetically different tissues called?
a. Sport
b. Chimera
c. Mutation
d. Hybrid
Explanation: A plant composed of two or more genetically different tissues is called a chimera, resulting from genetic mutations or somatic hybridization.
854. What are the parents of Citrange citrus, the intergeneric hybrid?
a. Poncirus and sweet orange
b. Poncirus and mandarins
c. Sweet orange and mandarins
d. Mandarins and sweet orange
Explanation: Citrange citrus, the intergeneric hybrid, has Poncirus and sweet orange as its parents, combining characteristics of both species.
855. Megasporogenesis is the formation of which gametes?
a. Male
b. Female
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Explanation: Megasporogenesis is the process of forming female gametes (megaspores) within the ovule of a plant.
856. What is the thin, delicate, cellulose inner layer in a pollen grain wall known as?
a. Intine
b. Exine
c. Colpi
d. All of above
Explanation: The thin, delicate, cellulose inner layer in a pollen grain wall is known as the intine, providing structural support and flexibility to the pollen grain.
857. Which plant is useful in the study of plant genomes due to its small genome size?
a. Tulip spp.
b. Arabidopsis thaliana
c. Pisum sativum
d. Tobacco
Explanation: Arabidopsis thaliana is useful in the study of plant genomes due to its small genome size, facilitating genetic research and manipulation.
858. From where are most plant tissue cultures initiated?
a. Calluses
b. Explants
c. Embryoids
d. Cell suspension
Explanation: Most plant tissue cultures are initiated from explants, which are small sections of plant tissue capable of generating new growth in culture.
859. How can pores in protoplasts be opened to DNA?
a. Magnetism
b. Enzymes
c. Electricity
d. None of above
Explanation: Pores in protoplasts can be opened to DNA by the application of electricity, a process known as electroporation.
860. Which of the following are mismatched?
a. Protoplast isolation hybrids
b. Homozygous plants anther/pollen culture
c. Callus culture differentiated tissues regenerate
d. All of above
Explanation: Protoplast isolation is not directly associated with hybrids; hence, it is a mismatched option.
861. What is plant transformation?
a. When a plant grown in culture generates increased genetic variation
b. When plant cells in suspension cultures form individual embryos that can grow into plants
c. The incorporation of foreign DNA into the plant genome
d. Both a and b
Explanation: Plant transformation is the incorporation of foreign DNA into the plant genome, allowing the plant to express new traits or characteristics.
862. Why can plant cells be grown in tissue culture and regenerate new plants unlike somatic cells of animals?
a. Because each cell contains the entire genome
b. Because plant cells can dedifferentiate and revert back to seeds
c. Because plant cells are able to express genes that weren’t previously expressed
d. None of above
Explanation: Plant cells can be grown in tissue culture and regenerate new plants because each cell contains the entire genome, allowing for regeneration under appropriate conditions.
863. Phenolic compounds, a cause of medium browning, are mostly released by which plants?
a. Succulents
b. Woody
c. Herbaceous
d. All of above
Explanation: Phenolic compounds, causing medium browning in tissue culture, are mostly released by woody, herbaceous, and succulent plants.
864. What is the structural nature of enzymes?
a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrates
d. Starch
Explanation: Enzymes are primarily composed of proteins, which serve as biological catalysts in various biochemical reactions.
865. What are the male sterile plants due to cytoplasmic genes termed as?
a. Cytoplasmic
b. Genetic
c. Gametic
d. None of above
Explanation: Male sterile plants due to cytoplasmic genes are termed as cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) plants, which lack functional pollen production due to mitochondrial or chloroplast genetic mutations.
866. What is the term for hyperhydric malformation occurring during in vitro propagation?
a. Contamination
b. Vitrification
c. Browning
d. All of above
Explanation: Hyperhydric malformation, characterized by a translucent, glassy appearance of tissues, is known as vitrification, which can occur during in vitro propagation.
867. What is the term for the use of living organisms or their byproducts to modify human health and the environment?
a. Tissue culture
b. Biotechnology
c. Genetic engineering
d. Recombinant DNA
Explanation: Biotechnology involves the use of living organisms or their byproducts to modify human health and the environment, encompassing various techniques like genetic engineering and tissue culture.
868. What is the term for the ability of somatic cells to grow into a complete plant?
a. Somatic embryogenesis
b. Totipotency
c. Regeneration
d. All of above
Explanation: Totipotency refers to the ability of somatic cells to grow into a complete plant through processes such as somatic embryogenesis and regeneration.
869. In which cells does somatic variation occur?
a. Germ cells
b. Somatic cells
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Explanation: Somatic variation occurs in somatic cells, which are the nonreproductive cells of an organism, as opposed to germ cells which give rise to gametes.
870. How can incompatibility, a problem in plant hybridization programs, be overcome?
a. Somatic hybridization
b. Endosperm culture
c. Embryo culture
d. All of above
Explanation: Incompatibility in plant hybridization programs can be overcome by techniques such as somatic hybridization, endosperm culture, and embryo culture.
871. What is the term for the process of formation of two or more embryos in a seed?
a. Apomixis
b. Polyploidy
c. Polyembryony
d. All of above
Explanation: Polyembryony refers to the process of formation of two or more embryos in a single seed, which can occur through various mechanisms including apomixis and polyploidy.
872. What is the diploid (2n) number of chromosomes in citrus?
a. 15
b. 18
c. 21
d. 24
Explanation: The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes in citrus is 18.
873. Which method is not used to check pollen viability in the laboratory?
a. Staining
b. In vitro culture
c. Fruit set
d. None of above
Explanation: Fruit set is not a method used to check pollen viability in the laboratory; staining and in vitro culture are commonly used techniques for this purpose.
874. What is one reason for unfruitfulness in fruits?
a. Heterostyly
b. Compatibility
c. Monoecy
d. None of above
Explanation: Unfruitfulness in fruits may be due to factors such as poor compatibility between pollinators and the plant’s reproductive structures.
875. Polyembryony reflects the number of embryos per seed as:
a. One or more
b. Two or more
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Explanation: Polyembryony reflects the presence of more than one embryo per seed, hence both options “One or more” and “Two or more” are correct.
876. Which of the following is involved in seedless watermelon production?
a. Apomixis
b. Interspecific crosses
c. Tetraploidy
d. All of above
Explanation: Seedless watermelon production involves various techniques including apomixis, interspecific crosses, and inducing tetraploidy in plants.
877. What is the most efficient method for generating homozygous breeding lines from heterozygous parents?
A) Protoplast fusion
B) Doubled haploids
C) Allopolyploidy
D) Aneuploidy
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Doubled haploids. Doubled haploids involve doubling the chromosome number in haploid cells, leading to the rapid creation of homozygous lines, which is highly beneficial in plant breeding for fixing desirable traits.
878. Identify the active meristematic tissue in plants.
A) Epidermis
B) Cambium
C) Cuticle
D) Sclerenchyma
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Cambium. Cambium is a meristematic tissue responsible for secondary growth in plants, playing a crucial role in the formation of vascular tissues.
879. Which method is suitable for commercially propagating chimeras?
A) Stimulating haploid female germ cells taken from the chimera to divide without being fertilized
B) Crossing the chimera with a normal plant of the same variety
C) All of the above
D) Taking stem cuttings from the chimera and its descendants
Explanation: The correct answer is D) Taking stem cuttings from the chimera and its descendants. This technique ensures the propagation of chimeras while maintaining their unique characteristics for commercial purposes.
880. What is the primary role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?
A) None of the above
B) Making multiple copies of gene sequences of singlestrand DNA
C) Removing the nucleus of a cell and replacing it with another
D) Cutting sequences of doublestrand DNA into fragments
Explanation: The correct answer is D) Cutting sequences of doublestrand DNA into fragments. Restriction enzymes cleave DNA at specific recognition sites, facilitating genetic manipulation by generating fragments that can be further utilized.
881. Mendel’s principle of independent assortment is best illustrated by which phase of cell division?
A) Telophase of mitosis
B) All of the above
C) Metaphase of meiosis
D) Prophase of mitosis
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Metaphase of meiosis. Mendel’s principle of independent assortment is evident during metaphase I of meiosis when homologous chromosomes align randomly along the metaphase plate, leading to the assortment of alleles independent of each other.
882. What term describes a variant among clones?
A) Strain
B) Clone
C) None of the above
D) Variety
Explanation: The correct answer is D) Variety. A variety refers to a variant among clones that exhibits distinct characteristics from the original clone.
883. What is the term for a cell lacking a cell wall?
A) Plasma
B) Cytoplasm
C) Protoplasm
D) Protoplast
Explanation: The correct answer is D) Protoplast. A protoplast is a plant cell devoid of its cell wall, containing only the plasma membrane and cytoplasm.
884. What is a medium termed without the addition of agar?
A) Liquid medium
B) Both B and C
C) Cell suspension culture
D) Solid medium
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Liquid medium. A medium lacking agar is typically in liquid form and is utilized for cultivating cells in suspension.
885. What is the term for the fusion of the nucleus of one plant cell with the cytoplasm of another cell?
A) Homokaryon
B) Heterokaryon
C) Cybrid
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Heterokaryon. Heterokaryon formation involves the fusion of nuclei from different cells within a shared cytoplasmic environment.
886. What is distilled water termed after autoclaving?
A) Double distilled water
B) Deionized water
C) All of the above
D) Autoclaved water
Explanation: The correct answer is D) Autoclaved water. Distilled water, sterilized through autoclaving, retains its sterility and is commonly referred to as autoclaved water.
887. What term refers to the genetic constitution of an organism?
A) Gene
B) Allele
C) Genotype
D) Phenotype
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Genotype. The genotype represents the specific combination of alleles that an organism possesses for a particular trait.
888. What is the term for the small circular molecule of doublestranded DNA found naturally in bacteria and yeast?
A) Plasmid
B) Tiplasmid
C) Plastid
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Plasmid. Plasmids are small, selfreplicating DNA molecules found in bacteria and yeast, often used in genetic engineering.
889. What is the temperature required for autoclaving to sterilize culture medium?
A) 115°C
B) 119°C
C) 121°C
D) 125°C
Explanation: The correct answer is C) 121°C. Autoclaving typically requires a temperature of 121°C to effectively sterilize culture medium and other materials.
890. What concentration of ethanol is commonly used for aseptic treatment of explants?
A) 90%
B) 80%
C) 70%
D) 55%
Explanation: The correct answer is C) 70%. A 70% ethanol solution is commonly used for aseptic treatment of explants to reduce microbial contamination.
891. From which plant part are protoplasts isolated in somatic hybridization?
A) Shoot
B) Leaves
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Both of the above. Protoplasts can be isolated from both shoots and leaves of plants for use in somatic hybridization techniques.
892. What term describes the process of regeneration of organs or organlike structures from callus?
A) Dedifferentiation
B) Redifferentiation
C) Differentiation
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Redifferentiation. Redifferentiation refers to the process by which callus tissue regenerates into specific organs or organlike structures.
893. Which group of plant hormones stimulates cell elongation and cell division, among other functions?
A) Cytokinin
B) Auxin
C) Gibberellin
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is D) All of the above. Cytokinin, auxin, and gibberellin are all plant hormones that play roles in inducing cell elongation and division, among other physiological processes.
894. What term describes a cell with two or more identical nuclei resulting from protoplast fusion?
A) Heterokaryon
B) Homokaryon
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Homokaryon. A homokaryon is a cell containing multiple identical nuclei, often resulting from the fusion of protoplasts.
895. In which year did Haberlandt first attempt cell cultures?
A) 1907
B) 1909
C) 1902
D) 1904
Explanation: The correct answer is C) 1902. Haberlandt made pioneering attempts at cell cultures in the year 1902, laying the foundation for modern tissue culture techniques.
896. Which of the following is not an example of evolution?
A) Mutations in an individual
B) Changes in allele frequency in a species
C) Adaptive radiation
D) All of the above are examples of evolution
Explanation: The correct answer is D) All of the above are examples of evolution. Mutations, changes in allele frequency, and adaptive radiation are all examples of evolutionary processes.
897. During which phase does DNA replication occur?
A) Interphase
B) Prophase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Interphase. DNA replication occurs during the interphase stage of the cell cycle, specifically during the S (synthesis) phase.
898. What happens when the ratio of auxin to cytokinin in tissue culture is low?
A) Rooting can be induced in an explant
B) Shooting can be induced in callus
C) Cell division is promoted in explants to produce callus
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is D) All of the above. When the ratio of auxin to cytokinin is low, it promotes rooting in explants, induces shooting in callus, and stimulates cell division to produce callus tissue.
899. How did Mendel’s discovery about the inheritance of characteristics arise?
A) Careful microscopic examinations of genes and chromosomes
B) Breeding experiments with many generations of fruit flies
C) Analysis of the offspring produced from many pea plant crosses
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Analysis of the offspring produced from many pea plant crosses. Mendel’s discovery of inheritance patterns arose from his meticulous analysis of the traits displayed by the offspring resulting from various crosses of pea plants.
900. What is the term for the condition in flowering plants where pollen is absent or nonfunctional?
A) Incompatibility
B) Sterility
C) Male sterility
D) Compatibility
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Male sterility. Male sterility refers to the condition in which pollen is either absent or nonfunctional in flowering plants, leading to reproductive incapacity.
901. What do plants containing only singlesex flowers commonly refer to as?
A) Dioecious
B) Monoecious
C) Hermaphrodite
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Dioecious. Plants with only singlesex flowers are termed dioecious, while those with both male and female flowers on the same plant are termed monoecious.
902. What is the term for the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma?
A) Pollination
B) Fertilization
C) Cloning
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Pollination. Pollination is the process by which pollen grains are transferred from the male reproductive organ (anther) to the female reproductive organ (stigma) of a flower.
903. Why did Mendel extensively study pea plants?
A) Fertilization
B) Hybridization
C) Pollination
D) Emasculation
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Hybridization. Mendel chose pea plants for his experiments because they were easy to crosspollinate, allowing for controlled hybridization to study inheritance patterns.
904. What is the branch of science that deals with the structure, function, and life of the cell?
A) Zoology
B) Cytology
C) Botany
D) Taxonomy
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Cytology. Cytology is the scientific study of cells, encompassing their structure, function, and life processes.
905. In what unit is heritability expressed?
A) Gram
B) Percentage
C) Meter
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Percentage. Heritability, the proportion of phenotypic variation due to genetic variation, is typically expressed as a percentage.
906. Which solution can be added to increase the pH of the medium?
A) 1N HCl
B) 1N NaOH
C) 1N H2SO4
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) 1N NaOH. Adding a solution of 1N NaOH can increase the pH of the medium by neutralizing acidic components.
907. Autoclave is used for sterilization and the conversion of sugar into
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Sucrose
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is D) All of the above. Autoclaves are utilized for sterilization purposes and can also be employed for the conversion of sugars into various forms such as fructose, glucose, or sucrose.
908. How can browning, a common issue in in vitro cultures, be managed?
A) 2,4D
B) Charcoal
C) Tap water
D) Kinetin
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Charcoal. Browning in in vitro cultures can be controlled by adding activated charcoal to the medium, which helps to absorb toxins and phenolic compounds that cause browning.
909. What is the term for the process of callus formation in plant tissue culture?
A) Embryogenesis
B) Callogenesis
C) Organogenesis
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Callogenesis. Callogenesis refers to the formation of callus, an undifferentiated mass of cells, in plant tissue culture.
910. What is the term for an undifferentiated mass of cells in in vitro cultures?
A) Wound
B) Callus
C) Cambium
D) Meristem
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Callus. Callus is an undifferentiated mass of cells that forms in in vitro cultures, commonly used for plant regeneration.
911. Which breeding method is utilized by humans to produce new and improved plant varieties?
A) Independent assortment
B) Artificial selection
C) Natural selection
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Artificial selection. Artificial selection involves intentionally breeding plants with desirable traits to produce new and improved varieties.
912. How may micropropagation be described?
A) Growing plants in pots
B) Growing whole plants from very small pieces of a parent plant
C) Growing plants in greenhouses
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Growing whole plants from very small pieces of a parent plant. Micropropagation involves the production of numerous plants from small plant parts, such as shoot tips or nodal segments, in a controlled laboratory setting.
913. In vitro culture refers to the growth of organisms
A) Inside other living organisms
B) Outside
C) In glass
D) In plastic pots
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Outside. In vitro culture involves growing organisms outside their natural environment, typically in a controlled laboratory setting, on artificial media.
914. What are somatic cells?
A) Sex cells
B) Nonsex cells
C) All body cells
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is C) All body cells. Somatic cells are nonsex cells that constitute the majority of an organism’s body tissues.
915. How is tissue culturing sometimes described?
A) DNA fingerprinting
B) A technique where individual cells are grown and divide in a bath of sterile nutrient fluid containing all required ingredients
C) A process where organisms reproduce asexually
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) A technique where individual cells are grown and divide in a bath of sterile nutrient fluid containing all required ingredients. Tissue culturing involves growing cells or tissues in a nutrient medium under controlled conditions.
916. Rooting in plant tissue culture medium is induced by
A) Auxins
B) Cytokinins
C) Gibberellins
D) BA
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Auxins. Auxins are plant hormones that promote root formation in tissue culture mediums.
917. Which of the following is not haploid?
A) Sperm cells
B) Gametophytic tissue
C) Nucellar tissue
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Nucellar tissue. Nucellar tissue is typically diploid, serving as a maternal tissue surrounding the embryo sac in the ovule of flowering plants.
918. What is the term for the inheritance of acquired characters?
A) Darwinism
B) Lamarckism
C) Epigenesis
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Lamarckism. Lamarckism refers to the theory that acquired characteristics can be inherited, which has been largely discredited in modern genetics.
919. Who proposed the Chromosome theory of heredity in 1902?
A) Sutton & Boveri
B) Mendel
C) Cameraris
D) Haberlandt
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Sutton & Boveri. Sutton and Boveri proposed the Chromosome theory of heredity in 1902, suggesting that chromosomes are the carriers of genetic information and are responsible for the transmission of traits from parents to offspring.
920. What is the term for the dominating gene in nonallelic interaction?
A) Dominant gene
B) Epistatic gene
C) Hypostatic gene
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is B) Epistatic gene. In nonallelic interaction, the dominating gene is referred to as the epistatic gene, which suppresses the expression of other genes.
921. How many different kinds of amino acids are there?
A) 20
B) 22
C) 24
D) 26
Explanation: The correct answer is A) 20. There are 20 different kinds of amino acids that serve as the building blocks of proteins.
922. What is the term for the complex formed when a nitrogenous base is bonded to a sugar?
A) Nucleoside
B) Nucleotide
C) Nucleic acid
D) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Nucleoside. A nucleoside is formed when a nitrogenous base is bonded to a sugar molecule, while a nucleotide consists of a nucleoside linked to a phosphate group. Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.
923. What are the two main steps of artificial hybridization?
A) Emasculation & pollination
B) Pollination & fertilization
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Both of the above. The two main steps of artificial hybridization are emasculation, the removal of male reproductive organs to prevent selfpollination, and pollination, the transfer of pollen from one plant to another.
924. What is the term for the characterization of the chromosomal complement of an individual or species?
A) Ideogram
B) Ideotype
C) Karyotype
D) None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Karyotype. Karyotype refers to the characterization of the number, form, and size of chromosomes in an individual or species.
925. What is the term for a change in chromosomes that is an exact multiple of the basic set?
A) Euploid
B) Aneuploid
C) Haploid
D) Autopolyploid
Explanation: The correct answer is A) Euploid. Euploidy refers to a change in the chromosome number that is an exact multiple of the basic set, such as diploid (2n), triploid (3n), tetraploid (4n), etc.
926. What are the petals in a flower collectively called?
A) Calyx
B) Anther
C) Corolla
D) Perianth
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Corolla. The petals in a flower are collectively referred to as the corolla, which is typically the colorful part of the flower that attracts pollinators.
927. In India, what is the range of postharvest losses of fruits and vegetables?
A) 1015%
B) 1520%
C) 2030%
D) 2040%
Explanation: The correct answer is C) 2030%. Postharvest losses of fruits and vegetables in India range between 2030%.
928. The quality of fruits and vegetables for fresh consumption is determined by
A) Grower
B) Retailer
C) Wholesaler
D) Consumer
Explanation: The correct answer is D) Consumer. The quality of fruits and vegetables for fresh consumption is ultimately determined by the consumer’s preferences and standards.
929. How are vegetables or their products typically preserved?
A) Grading
B) Packing
C) Processing
D) Vegetable forcing
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Processing. Vegetables or their products are preserved through various processing methods such as canning, freezing, drying, or pickling.
930. What is the term for the physical aging activity in which plant tissues degenerate and ultimately die?
A) Fruit ripening
B) Maturity
C) Senescence
D) a & b
Explanation: The correct answer is C) Senescence. Senescence refers to the process of aging in plants, during which tissues degenerate and eventually die.
931. What is the term for the degeneration and death of aerial plant parts like leaves, branches, flowers, and fruit, but not underground plant parts?
a. Senescence
b. Partial senescence
c. Maturity
d. None
Correct answer: a. Senescence
Explanation: Senescence refers to the natural aging process in plants, which leads to the degeneration and eventual death of aerial plant parts, excluding underground plant parts.
932. What are synthetic products called that, when applied to plants, produce reactions almost identical to hormones?
a. Plant hormones
b. Plant growth regulators
c. Photoperiodism activator
d. Plant growth promoters
Correct answer: b. Plant growth regulators
Explanation: Synthetic products that mimic the action of plant hormones and produce similar reactions in plants are called plant growth regulators.
933. What are some horticultural uses of ethylene?
a. Inducing fruit maturity
b. Initiating flowering
c. Changing the green color of fruits
d. All of the above
Correct answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Ethylene is commonly used in horticulture to induce fruit maturity, initiate flowering, and change the color of fruits, among other applications.
934. What does lowtemperature injury include?
a. Chilling injury
b. Desiccation heaving
c. Anthracnose
d. All of the above
Correct answer: a. Chilling injury
Explanation: Lowtemperature injury includes chilling injury, which occurs when plants are exposed to temperatures below their tolerance levels, leading to various physiological disorders.
935. What is carotene a precursor of?
a. VitaminC
b. VitaminD
c. VitaminA
d. Ascorbic acid
Correct answer: c. VitaminA
Explanation: Carotene is a precursor of vitamin A, which is essential for vision, immune function, and skin health.
936. What is the form of controlled atmosphere storage in which produce is stored in a partial vacuum called?
a. Hypobaric storage
b. Gas storage
c. Modified storage
d. Controlled atmospheric storage
Correct answer: a. Hypobaric storage
Explanation: Hypobaric storage is a form of controlled atmosphere storage where produce is stored in a partial vacuum to extend its shelf life.
937. How are total soluble solids in fruits or vegetables measured?
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Refractometer
d. Tensiometer
Correct answer: c. Refractometer
Explanation: Total soluble solids in fruits or vegetables are commonly measured using a refractometer, which determines the refractive index of a solution, indicating its sugar content.
938. How is acidity readily determined from a sample of extracted juice by titration?
a. 0.1 N NaOH
b. 1.0 N NaOH
c. 10.0 N NaOH
d. 0.01 N NaOH
Correct answer: b. 1.0 N NaOH
Explanation: Acidity in juice samples can be readily determined by titration with a 1.0 N NaOH (sodium hydroxide) solution.
939. What is the best time of harvest for perishable fruits and vegetables?
a. Morning
b. Afternoon
c. Evening
d. Night
Correct answer: a. Morning
Explanation: The best time of harvest for perishable fruits and vegetables is usually in the morning when temperatures are cooler, and the produce is at its freshest.
940. In mangoes, what is the established method for evaluating maturity?
a. Color of fruit
b. Firmness of fruit
c. Dry matter contents
d. Size of fruit
Correct answer: a. Color of fruit
Explanation: In mangoes, the color of the fruit is often the established method for evaluating maturity, with changes in color indicating ripeness.
941. If fruits are coated with wax, what percentage of water loss can be reduced?
a. 2030%
b. 3040%
c. 4050%
d. 3050%
Correct answer: d. 3050%
Explanation: Coating fruits with wax can reduce water loss by approximately 3050%, helping to maintain their freshness and extend their shelf life.
942. How long can sweet potatoes be cured at around 30°C and 9095% RH prior to storage?
a. 12 days prior to storage
b. 25 days prior to storage
c. 47 days prior to storage
d. 78 days prior to storage
Correct answer: c. 47 days prior to storage
Explanation: Sweet potatoes are typically cured at around 30°C and 9095% relative humidity for 47 days prior to storage to heal wounds, reduce rot, and enhance flavor and texture.
943. How can internal breakdown in apples during cold storage be reduced?
a. Sodium
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
Correct answer: c. Calcium
Explanation: Treating apples with calcium can help reduce internal breakdown during cold storage, maintaining fruit quality and reducing postharvest losses.
944. What is the most common packing material used for mangoes and citrus in India?
a. Plastic bins
b. Bamboo baskets
c. Polythene bags
d. Wooden crates
Correct answer: d. Wooden crates
Explanation: Wooden crates are commonly used as packing material for mangoes and citrus fruits in India due to their durability and ability to protect the fruits during transportation and storage.
945. What is the optimum storage temperature for apples?
a. 01°C
b. 25°C
c. 510°C
d. 1015°C
Correct answer: a. 01°C
Explanation: The optimum storage temperature for apples ranges from 01°C, which helps to prolong their shelf life by slowing down physiological processes such as respiration and ripening.
946. After harvest, the rate of respiration increases in which type of fruits?
a. Tropical fruits
b. Nonclimacteric fruits
c. Temperate fruits
d. Climacteric fruits
Correct answer: d. Climacteric fruits
Explanation: After harvest, the rate of respiration increases in climacteric fruits, such as bananas and apples, which undergo a burst of ethylene production and continue to ripen after being harvested.
947. What is the best indicator of metabolic activities and potential storage life of fresh produce?
a. Rate of transpiration
b. Rate of respiration
c. Rate of ethylene production
d. Rate of weight loss
Correct answer: b. Rate of respiration
Explanation: The rate of respiration is the best indicator of metabolic activities and potential storage life of fresh produce. It reflects the ongoing physiological processes and influences the rate of quality deterioration.
948. As the storage period of most fruits is increased, what happens to acidity and vitamin C content?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Acidity increases while vitamin C decreases
Correct answer: b. Decrease
Explanation: As the storage period of most fruits is increased, both acidity and vitamin C content tend to decrease gradually due to metabolic processes and degradation over time.
949. What happens during the curing of tuber crops?
a. Excessive moisture is lost
b. A waxy layer is developed on the fruit
c. Storage life increases
d. All of the above
Correct answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: During the curing of tuber crops, excess moisture is lost, a waxy layer may develop on the surface, and the storage life of the crops generally increases due to improved wound healing and resistance to pathogens.
950. What is the most common radiation dose used for extending the shelf life of fruits and vegetables?
a. 0.013.0 kGy
b. 510 kGy
c. 1020 kGy
d. 2030 kGy
Correct answer: a. 0.013.0 kGy
Explanation: The most common radiation dose used for extending the shelf life of fruits and vegetables typically ranges from 0.01 to 3.0 kilograys (kGy), depending on the type of produce and desired outcomes.
951. In controlled atmosphere storage, what is controlled?
a. Temperature and RH
b. Nitrogen concentration
c. Oxygen and carbon dioxide levels
d. All of the above
Correct answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: In controlled atmosphere storage, various parameters such as temperature, relative humidity (RH), nitrogen concentration, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels are controlled to optimize storage conditions and prolong the shelf life of fruits and vegetables.
952. Where is chilling injury commonly observed?
a. Temperate fruits
b. Tropical and subtropical fruits
c. Deciduous fruits
d. None of the above
Correct answer: b. Tropical and subtropical fruits
Explanation: Chilling injury is commonly observed in tropical and subtropical fruits when they are exposed to low temperatures below their chilling threshold, causing physiological damage.
953. Which enzyme is involved in ethylene synthesis?
a. ACC synthase
b. ACC oxidase
c. Endopolygalacturonase
d. a & b
Correct answer: d. a & b
Explanation: Ethylene synthesis involves two key enzymes: ACC (1aminocyclopropane1carboxylic acid) synthase and ACC oxidase.
954. What is the safe storage temperature for most mango cultivars?
a. 56°C
b. 78°C
c. 13°C
d. 12°C
Correct answer: b. 78°C
Explanation: The safe storage temperature for most mango cultivars is around 78°C, which helps to slow down the ripening process and prolong the shelf life of the fruit.
955. What should the relative humidity be during storage of most fresh produce?
a. 5060%
b. 6575%
c. 7080%
d. 8595%
Correct answer: b. 6575%
Explanation: During storage of most fresh produce, the relative humidity should ideally be maintained between 6575% to prevent dehydration and maintain product quality.
956. Which crop has a higher respiration rate?
a. Cabbage
b. Grapefruit
c. Potato
d. Tomato
Correct answer: c. Potato
Explanation: Potato has a higher respiration rate compared to other crops, leading to faster deterioration during storage if not properly managed.
957. How does silver thiosulphate extend the vase life of cut flowers?
a. Antibacterial properties
b. Antioxidant properties
c. Antiethylene properties
d. Antiauxin properties
Correct answer: c. Antiethylene properties
Explanation: Silver thiosulphate extends the vase life of cut flowers by inhibiting the effects of ethylene, a hormone responsible for aging and senescence processes in plants.
958. Which fruit is nonclimacteric?
a. Apple
b. Mango
c. Peach
d. Citrus
Correct answer: d. Citrus
Explanation: Citrus fruits are considered nonclimacteric, meaning they do not exhibit a respiratory burst or a significant increase in ethylene production during ripening, unlike climacteric fruits such as apples and mangoes.
959. What is the result of internal browning in fresh produce?
a. Depletion of carbohydrates
b. Action of polyphenoloxidase (PPO)
c. Loss of moisture
d. Loss of chlorophyll
Correct answer: b. Action of polyphenoloxidase (PPO)
Explanation: Internal browning in fresh produce is often the result of enzymatic browning caused by the action of polyphenoloxidase (PPO) enzymes on phenolic compounds in the tissues.
960. How is maturity determined in onions?
a. Bulb size
b. Bulb color
c. Leaves color
d. Tops drooping
Correct answer: d. Tops drooping
Explanation: In onions, maturity is often determined by observing the tops, or foliage, which begin to droop or yellow as the bulb matures and approaches harvest readiness.
961. At what stage should rose flowers be cut for optimal longevity?
a. When petals are fully open
b. At tightbud stage
c. When petals start folding
d. When the petals show full color
Correct answer: b. At tightbud stage
Explanation: Rose flowers are best cut at the tightbud stage for optimal longevity and vase life. This stage ensures that the flowers will fully open and remain fresh for a longer period.
962. When are the postharvest quality of carnation flowers observed better?
a. Bud stage
b. Fully open stage
c. Half bud and half open stage
d. All of the above
Correct answer: c. Half bud and half open stage
Explanation: The postharvest quality of carnation flowers is often observed to be better when they are cut at the half bud and half open stage. At this stage, the flowers have partially opened, but the buds are still firm, ensuring a longer vase life.
963. What is the common fumigant applied to fruit crops after harvest to control postharvest diseases?
a. Ca(OH)2
b. SO2
c. CaO
d. CO2
Correct answer: b. SO2
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is commonly used as a fumigant on fruit crops after harvest to control postharvest diseases caused by fungi and bacteria.
964. What is the best method of harvesting citrus fruits?
a. Pulling
b. Clipping
c. Twisting
d. Twistpicking
Correct answer: d. Twistpicking
Explanation: The best method of harvesting citrus fruits is twistpicking, where the fruit is gently twisted until it detaches from the tree, minimizing damage to the fruit and the tree.
965. What is the most effective fungicide for controlling citrus fruit diseases caused by Penicillium spp.?
a. Sodium orthophenylphosphate (SOPP)
b. Carbendazim
c. Thiabendazole (TBZ)
d. TopsinM
Correct answer: c. Thiabendazole (TBZ)
Explanation: Thiabendazole (TBZ) is the most effective fungicide for controlling citrus fruit diseases caused by Penicillium spp., which commonly cause postharvest decay in citrus fruits.
966. How are active ingredients in plants defined?
a. Correcting bodily functions
b. A restorative of body ailments
c. Preventing or curing diseases
d. Constituents having a medicinal action
Correct answer: d. Constituents having a medicinal action
Explanation: Active ingredients in plants are defined as constituents having a medicinal action, which may include compounds responsible for therapeutic effects.
967. According to international standards, medicinal plants are those with active ingredients in the range of:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 4060%
d. None of the above
Correct answer: d. None of the above
Explanation: International standards do not specify a particular range of active ingredients for defining medicinal plants. The medicinal properties of plants can vary widely based on their chemical composition and bioactivity.
968. What is the botanical name of Ispaghol?
a. Terminalia arjuna
b. Strychnus nuxvomica
c. Ocimum basilicum
d. Plantago ovata
Correct answer: d. Plantago ovata
Explanation: The botanical name of Ispaghol is Plantago ovata. It is commonly known as psyllium or isabgol and is used for its medicinal properties, particularly as a source of dietary fiber.
969. According to the HOLY PROPHET (SAW), what is the most potential medicinal plant?
a. Babool
b. Zaitoon
c. Angeer
d. Kalonji
Correct answer: b. Zaitoon
Explanation: According to traditions attributed to the Holy Prophet Muhammad (SAW), Zaitoon (olive) is considered one of the most potential medicinal plants, valued for its various health benefits.
970. What method yields the best rose oil from rose petals?
a. Steam distillation
b. Vacuum distillation
c. Enfleurage
d. Carbon dioxide extraction
Correct answer: a. Steam distillation
Explanation: The best yield of rose oil from rose petals is obtained by steam distillation, a traditional method for extracting essential oils from aromatic plant materials.
971. How does aromatic biosynthesis occur in plants?
a. Shikimic acid pathway
b. Acetate hypothesis
c. Both
d. None of the above
Correct answer: c. Both
Explanation: Aromatic biosynthesis in plants can occur through both the shikimic acid pathway and the acetate hypothesis, depending on the specific compounds being synthesized.
972. What do tea leaves contain?
a. Tannins
b. Alkaloids
c. Alkaloids and tannins
d. None of the above
Correct answer: c. Alkaloids and tannins
Explanation: Tea leaves contain both alkaloids (e.g., caffeine) and tannins, which contribute to the flavor, aroma, and health properties of tea.
973. Which plant contains cardioactive glycoside?
a. Digitalis spp.
b. Cardamom
c. Ginseng
d. Lemon spp.
Correct answer: a. Digitalis spp.
Explanation: Digitalis spp., commonly known as foxglove, contains cardioactive glycosides such as digoxin, which are used in the treatment of heart conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation.
974. What is the percentage of volatile oil in coriander?
a. 0.8%
b. 1.8%
c. 2.8%
d. 5%
Correct answer: b. 1.8%
Explanation: Coriander contains approximately 1.8% volatile oil, which contributes to its flavor and aroma.
975. What are alkaloids?
a. Alkali like compounds
b. Neutral compounds
c. Basic compounds
d. Complex nitrogen compounds
Correct answer: d. Complex nitrogen compounds
Explanation: Alkaloids are a diverse group of complex nitrogencontaining compounds found in plants, often possessing pharmacological properties.
976. How is molarity defined?
a. Number of moles of solute per 100 liters of solution
b. Number of moles of solute per 10 liters of solution
c. Number of moles of solute per 1000 liters of solution
d. Number of moles of solute per 1 liter of solution
Correct answer: d. Number of moles of solute per 1 liter of solution
Explanation: Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved in one liter of solution.
977. Why is referencing necessary in scientific literature?
a. To help readers verify the quoted facts
b. To avoid plagiarizing
c. To enable readers to follow up
d. All of the above
Correct answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Referencing in scientific literature is necessary to help readers verify the quoted facts, avoid plagiarism, and enable readers to follow up on the cited sources for further information.
978. Which experimental design is most suitable for uniform experimental material?
a. RCBD (Randomized Complete Block Design)
b. Latin Square
c. CRD (Completely Randomized Design)
d. None of the above
Correct answer: c. CRD (Completely Randomized Design)
Explanation: CRD is most suitable for uniform experimental material where each experimental unit is independent and there are no specific blocking factors to consider.
979. Which experimental design is suitable when there are two sources of variation?
a. CRD (Completely Randomized Design)
b. RCBD (Randomized Complete Block Design)
c. Latin Square
d. ANOVA (Analysis of Variance)
Correct answer: b. RCBD (Randomized Complete Block Design)
Explanation: RCBD is suitable when there are two sources of variation as it allows for the control of one source of variation through blocking, providing greater precision and efficiency in estimating treatment effects.
980. How can standard error be decreased?
a. Number of treatments should be increased
b. Size of experimental blocks should be increased
c. Number of people taking observations should be increased
d. Replication numbers should be increased
Correct answer: d. Replication numbers should be increased
Explanation: Increasing the number of replications (repeats) of each treatment within an experiment decreases the standard error, leading to more precise estimates of treatment effects.
981. What is the Tetrazolium chloride test used for?
a. Estimation of chlorine in leaves
b. Detection of nitrogen content
c. Viability of seeds
d. None of the above
Correct answer: c. Viability of seeds
Explanation: The Tetrazolium chloride test is used to assess the viability of seeds by staining living tissues, helping to determine the percentage of viable seeds in a sample.
982. In india, what is the consumption ratio of fruits and vegetables?
a. Equal ratio
b. Fruits are more
c. Vegetables are more
d. According to WHO standards
Correct answer: b. Fruits are more
Explanation: In india, the consumption of fruits is generally higher than that of vegetables.
983. What does high temperature before harvest in plums cause?
a. Die back
b. Kelsey spot
c. Powdery mildew
d. Sunburn
Correct answer: d. Sunburn
Explanation: High temperature before harvest in plums can cause sunburn, resulting in damage to the fruit’s surface and affecting its quality.
984. At what temperature do green bananas become injured?
a. 40°F
b. 50°F
c. 60°F
d. 70°F
Correct answer: a. 40°F
Explanation: Green bananas are injured when exposed to temperatures below 40°F, leading to chilling injury and adversely affecting their quality and ripening process.
985. What does bacteria convert ammonia into during the first step of nitrogen fixation?
a. Nitrites
b. Nitrides
c. Nitrates
d. N
Correct answer: a. Nitrites
Explanation: Bacteria convert ammonia into nitrites during the first step of nitrogen fixation, a process where atmospheric nitrogen is converted into forms usable by plants.
986. What is the maximum nitrogen fixation per acre annually?
a. 250 lbs
b. 75 lbs
c. 150 lbs
d. 125 lbs
Correct answer: c. 150 lbs
Explanation: The maximum nitrogen fixation per acre annually is approximately 150 lbs, which can be achieved through various agricultural practices such as crop rotation and the use of nitrogenfixing plants.
987. Which type of cuttings show more success in rooting?
a. Leaves
b. Opening buds
c. Slanting cut
d. Round cut
Correct answer: b. Opening buds
Explanation: Cuttings with opening buds show more success in rooting compared to other types of cuttings because they contain actively growing tissue that facilitates root development.
988. What removes inhibiting substances and the organs producing them?
a. Topping
b. Disbudding
c. Pinching
d. Girdling
Correct answer: b. Disbudding
Explanation: Disbudding removes inhibiting substances and the organs producing them, allowing for better growth and development of the plant.
989. Which hormone is produced in the meso and endocarp of sound ripe apples?
a. Ethylene
b. Guanine
c. ABA (Abscisic Acid)
d. IBA (Indole3butyric acid)
Correct answer: a. Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene is produced in the meso and endocarp of sound ripe apples and plays a crucial role in the ripening process of fruits.
990. Why do tops of peach budded on Marianna plum suddenly fail?
a. Bud union
b. Phloem tissue breakdown
c. Cambial contact
d. Lack of callus formation
Correct answer: b. Phloem tissue breakdown
Explanation: Tops of peach budded on Marianna plum suddenly fail due to phloem tissue breakdown, which disrupts nutrient transport and leads to failure of the grafted portion.
991. Where are growth substances chiefly translocated both up and down in the stem?
a. Phloem
b. Xylem
c. Cortex
d. Pith
Correct answer: a. Phloem
Explanation: Growth substances are chiefly translocated both up and down in the stem through the phloem, which transports organic nutrients and growth regulators.
992. What pruning type results in more fruit spur formation in apples?
a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Heavy
d. No pruning
Correct answer: c. Heavy
Explanation: Heavy pruning in apples results in more fruit spur formation, which promotes the growth of fruitbearing branches and increases fruit production.
993. What does light summer pruning help in?
a. Coloration
b. Development
c. Maturity
d. Quality
Correct answer: a. Coloration
Explanation: Light summer pruning helps in proper coloration of fruits by allowing sunlight to penetrate the canopy and reach the fruitbearing branches, enhancing the development of pigments responsible for color.
994. What makes tree growth more compact?
a. Thinning out
b. Heading back
c. Fine pruning
d. No pruning
Correct answer: b. Heading back
Explanation: Heading back, a type of pruning where the ends of branches are cut back to promote branching, makes tree growth more compact by stimulating the growth of lateral branches.
995. What can green leaves of plants do with all the vitamins that they can use?
a. Synthesize
b. Reduce
c. Uptake
d. Store
Correct answer: a. Synthesize
Explanation: Green leaves of plants can synthesize all the vitamins that they can use through photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy and producing organic compounds, including vitamins.
996. What charge do soil particles carry?
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. No charge
d. Positive + Negative
Correct answer: d. Positive + Negative
Explanation: Soil particles carry both positive and negative charges, which contribute to the overall cation exchange capacity (CEC) and anion exchange capacity (AEC) of the soil.
997. What is citrus canker?
a. Fungal disease
b. Bacterial disease
c. Nutrient deficiency
d. Presence of pebbles in soil
Correct answer: b. Bacterial disease
Explanation: Citrus canker is a bacterial disease that affects citrus trees, causing characteristic lesions on leaves, fruit, and stems, leading to reduced yield and quality.
998. What happens to the soil solution under dry conditions?
a. Dilute
b. Very dilute
c. Concentrated
d. Very concentrated
Correct answer: c. Concentrated
Explanation: The soil solution becomes concentrated under dry conditions as water evaporates from the soil, leaving behind dissolved salts and minerals in higher concentrations.
999. In what form is nitrogen absorbed by plants?
a. Nitride
b. Nitrite
c. Nitrate
d. NH4
Correct answer: c. Nitrate
Explanation: Nitrogen is primarily absorbed by plants in the form of nitrate (NO3), although some plants can also uptake ammonium (NH4+) under certain conditions.
1000. In what amounts are many nonessential elements toxic to plants?
a. Very low
b. Low
c. High
d. Very high
Correct answer: c. High
Explanation: Many nonessential elements can become toxic to plants in high amounts, even though they are required in trace amounts. Excessive accumulation of elements like aluminum, boron, and selenium can lead to toxicity symptoms and hinder plant growth.
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